The Husband is the Head of the Wife

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Joelel

Hi,you know I always thought the word was spiritual and it was written to spritual people.This is what they were writting about,spiritual authority.Man is head (authority).Man is spiritual authority of women.That means all men are spiritual authority of all women.1 Tim.2:12: But I suffer (allow)not a woman to teach, nor to usurp (take)authority over the man, but to be in silence (be silence when ?)When being taught.11: Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection

I think where the confusion or debate has come in is the teaching that the man is "priest" of the home which seems to imply that salvation and all that it entails wasn't afforded the woman also.

At least that is what I am reading the debate to be about.

[Joelel]

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

Again no takers????????????????????? Must have convinced the whole bunch I thought it was good but didn't know it was that good.

I always thought it was talking about spiritual things, all women were to submit to all men in,like women can't teach men.1 Tim.2:11: Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12: But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Joelel

Prax,My KJV don't say and the man is the head of a woman, and neither does the Greek.Here is KJV AND GREEK.

1 Cor11:3 3: But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God

1 Corinthians 11:3 qelw <2309> (5719) de <1161> {BUT I WISH} umaV <5209> {YOU} eidenai <1492> (5760) {TO KNOW,} oti <3754> {THAT} pantoV <3956> {OF EVERY} androV <435> {MAN} h <3588> {THE} kefalh <2776> {HEAD} o <3588> {THE} cristoV <5547> {CHRIST} estin <2076> (5748) {IS,} kefalh <2776> de <1161> {BUT HEAD} gunaikoV <1135> {OF [THE] WOMEN [IS]} o <3588> {THE} anhr <435> {MAN,} kefalh <2776> de <1161> {AND HEAD} cristou <5547> o <3588> {OF CHRIST,} qeoV <2316> {GOD.

Notice there is NO article before the greek word for woman....that means the word is indefinite...A is an indefinite article. When words in the greek lack definite articles they are usually considered indefinite unless there is a grammatical reason to view them otherwise.......The KJV is wrong there

Also if the covering here is talking about the hair this statement woun't make any sence because she would not be able to cut her hair because she would all ready have cut it.Not covered would mean the same as to cut and shorn means to cut,so this statement would make no sence.
1 Cor,11:6: For if the woman be not covered(cut her hair), let her also be shorn(cut her hair): but if it be a shame for a woman to be shorn or shaven, let her be covered.

Right...unless by covered Paul has in mind komaō...long hair. In other words, if she will not allow her hair to grow long and worn as a veil, she might as well be shorn.

Let's also notice again the context here

It's interesting that when Paul discusses praying or prophesying he immediately jumps to hair...and hair being a covering
1Co 11:13 Judge for yourselves: Is it proper for a woman to pray to God with her head uncovered?
1Co 11:14 Does not nature itself teach you that if a man has long hair, it is a disgrace for him,
1Co 11:15 but if a woman has long hair, it is her glory? For her hair is given to her for a covering.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Michlow

Ahem! That would be my line

Ah, great....anyone else wanna take the "I am woman, hear me belch"? I bet I can think of a million of them hehe

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

You are right that is does not say, "a", but it does seem to imply it. Logically every man couldn't be over every women in a personal way, but could do so in a spiritual way - as in a pastor. The whole scripture isn't even saying that she has no spiritual use of her own anyway.

The KJV translators added the word "the"....Gee I wonder who influenced them? Aquinas? The Pope? A gay king?

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

The KJV translators added the word "the"....Gee I wonder who influenced them? Aquinas? The Pope? A gay king?

I don't know. I haven't read it without the "the". Where are you getting the translation?

Also, from the whole text it seems a rather minor detail, IMO. In other words, it reads the same to me with or without the "the" or "a".

Probably with the "a" it solidifies the point, but I don't think it's a necessary point to argue.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Ah, great....anyone else wanna take the "I am woman, hear me belch"? I bet I can think of a million of them hehe

Rosanne Barr?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

I don't know. I haven't read it without the "the". Where are you getting the translation?

Also, from the whole text it seems a rather minor detail, IMO. In other words, it reads the same to me with or without the "the" or "a".

Probably with the "a" it solidifies the point, but I don't think it's a necessary point to argue.

It might, but you have to ask why is the word for man have a definite article and the word for woman does not?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

Rosanne Barr?

heh

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

It might, but you have to ask why is the word for man have a definite article and the word for woman does not?

What translation are you reading? I haven't seen the "the" left out of the ones I've read.

Just wondering.