So here's where we stand in this debate.
The pro-tithing crowd continues to ask "When were tithes abolished and who abolished them?" When the question is answered, then they switch tithes and hurl the hail Mary pass of the "pre Covenant" theory. This theory asserts that since Abraham paid tithes one time to a king/priest on the spoils of war, that this indicates that we in the New Testament are called to pay tithes of our weekly gross income to our Melchizedek through one of his many "go betweens" here on earth. The assumption is since Abraham paid tithes "pre-Law" that we must also. But then they will switch back to using the Levitical tithe as our model, invoking Malachi and accusing non-tithers of robbing God. It's hard to keep track of all of this switching of arguments.
The pro-tithe crowd , when confronted by the fact that the Levitical tithe has indeed been annulled, goes on the attack by asking when this pre law tithe was done away with.
A few points to consider......
1) If it was not done away with, who did the Children of Israel pay tithes to while in Egypt for 400 years?
2) Who did Abraham pay tithes to for the remainder of his life after paying them once to Melchizedek?
3) If this practice was never ended, then why do we not see Israel paying this tithe in addition to the Levitical tithe?
4) If we in the New testament are obligated to pay this tithe, then would it not be a one time tithe as was Abraham's? How do we send the tithe to our Melchizedek ?
5) If Levi is credited as having paid these tithes while unborn in the loins of Abraham, then why aren't we, the adopted sons of Abraham also credited as having paid this one time tithe?
6) If Abraham's tithe was a one time event, then how do modern tithe teachers insist that the tithe be paid on all income gained for our entire life span? Where do they find the authority to alter the example displayed by Abraham?
7) Question mainly for Pliny. You said....
Quote:
This chapter is not about tithing. It's about the pre-eminence of Christ and His priesthood.
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If this is true, then why do so many pro-tithers cite this chapter as "New testament proof" for tithing? Will you now publically denounce this practice?
I assume that the pro tithers on this thread are people of the highest character and will gladly consider and answer each of these question. I offer them my heartfelt thanks in advance.