The Appeal of Preterism

[Esaias]

Btw, just because the Olivet prophecy had primarily to do with AD70 it does not follow that preterism is correct as just about all schemes of interpretation (except dispensationalism and its derivatives) understood that prophecy as fulfilled in AD70.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

What about "I have set thee for a light unto the gentiles/nations"? Did that not apply both to Christ and the apostle Paul?

The idea of Christ and the church being a light is not a dual fulfillment, because the Church is the body of Christ. Paul was in Jesus' name, meaning one with Christ. What is true of Christ is true of the church because they are one body. That is of a totally different nature than Solomon being son of David followed by Jesus as Son of David.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Btw, just because the Olivet prophecy had primarily to do with AD70 it does not follow that preterism is correct as just about all schemes of interpretation (except dispensationalism and its derivatives) understood that prophecy as fulfilled in AD70.

But all schemes do not see the events occurring in one generation, including those futurists agree occurred in AD70, as Jesus said they would in verse 34.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

The idea of Christ and the church being a light is not a dual fulfillment, because the Church is the body of Christ. Paul was in Jesus' name, meaning one with Christ. What is true of Christ is true of the church because they are one body. That is of a totally different nature than Solomon being son of David followed by Jesus as Son of David.

Paul is not the church, he is a member of the church. I'll have to go check but seems I remember that prophecy was directly applied to Paul (eat your heart out, Branham lol). Which if that were the case then we have a definite example of a prophecy fulfilled by Christ and then, "after the cross", by another person/event.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

But all schemes do not see the events occurring in one generation, including those futurists agree occurred in AD70, as Jesus said they would in verse 34.

I think you left some words out brother cause I'm not sure what exactly you are trying to say here lol.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Paul is not the church, he is a member of the church. I'll have to go check but seems I remember that prophecy was directly applied to Paul (eat your heart out, Branham lol). Which if that were the case then we have a definite example of a prophecy fulfilled by Christ and then, "after the cross", by another person/event.

Actually the passage has both Paul and Barnabas speaking those words, so it is not just Paul and Jesus. And they said the Lord commanded "US."

Acts 13:46-47 KJV Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles. (47) For so hath the Lord commanded us, saying, I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

I think you left some words out brother cause I'm not sure what exactly you are trying to say here lol.

I can understand it, but I guess anyone knows what THEY meant to say. lol

I meant to say that all schemes of prophecy may agree parts are for AD70, but not all of them see the reality that the entire series of events would occur by AD70. The reason I know the entire series of events occurred by then is because verse 34 says ALL THESE THINGS would occur in one generation. If the temple destruction is part of the "ALL THESE THINGS", and they are ALL supposed to occur in one generation, we already know the temple was destroyed in AD70. That means everything else must have occurred in the same generation who saw the temple destruction back then!

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Actually the passage has both Paul and Barnabas speaking those words, so it is not just Paul and Jesus. And they said the Lord commanded "US."

Acts 13:46-47 KJV Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles. (47) For so hath the Lord commanded us, saying, I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth.

Thanks for getting the quote (I'm battling the demon of laziness right now lol).

So a prophecy primarily pertaining to Christ is fulfilled by two Christians...

Actually it looks plausible that Paul is basically saying "we are going to the Gentiles in obedience to God because Christ is to enlighten the Gentiles".

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

I can understand it, but I guess anyone knows what THEY meant to say. lol

I meant to say that all schemes of prophecy may agree parts are for AD70, but not all of them see the reality that the entire series of events would occur by AD70. The reason I know the entire series of events occurred by then is because verse 34 says ALL THESE THINGS would occur in one generation. If the temple destruction is part of the "ALL THESE THINGS", and they are ALL supposed to occur in one generation, we already know the temple was destroyed in AD70. That means everything else must have occurred in the same generation who saw the temple destruction back then!

Then, to be consistent...

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Thanks for getting the quote (I'm battling the demon of laziness right now lol).

So a prophecy primarily pertaining to Christ is fulfilled by two Christians...

Actually it looks plausible that Paul is basically saying "we are going to the Gentiles in obedience to God because Christ is to enlighten the Gentiles".

Yes, I think that is what it means, and also that ISRAEL's prophecy to whom this was first given in Isaiah is fulfilled in the CHURCH/. The New Israel is the Church.