Accepting Him or Rejecting Him; Jesus Name Baptism and Pentecostal Trinity Churches

Originally Posted by OGIA

Then what IS the Father's name that the Lord Jesus manifested to those men?

The scripture doesn't say.

So, a piece of God was manifested, just not His fatherhood?

No, not a mere piece of God, God Himself.

The Father's name as commonly referred to in the OT is Jehovah. Agree or not? I do agree that God became salvation. It's just about "which one" is where we disagree.

No, it isn't. More often than not what we see is the word LORD in all capital letters. What is being used there is essentially the tetragrammation YHVH. It is the name of God and not merely His fatherhood.

There is no "which one" in God. Even the early Trinitarian Creeds acknowledge, "We believe in one God, the Father almighty...." This is consistent with what Paul said in 1 Corinthians 8:6, "There is one God, the Father..."

[Steve Epley]

Originally Posted by Chan

This does not say that the Father's name is Jesus.[/FONT]


This is heresy! The Bible says that Jesus is GOD manifest in the flesh, not God's fatherhood manifest in the flesh.

Father is not a name, it's a title. It was not God's fatherhood that became salvation, it was God that became salvation.

Sir there is ONLY God the Father in the Bible so if God was manifested in the flesh it HAD to be God the Father.

One God the Father Eph. 4:6!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!1

Jesus said I come in my Father's name. Jn. 5:43!
He inherited his Father's name. Heb. 1:4
There is but ONE name. Zech. 14:7

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

Try out for the dodgers and forget the Bible! Your 'arguments' are so weak I will just allow mine to stand those reading can chose.

Why do you despise Jesus Name??????????????? If Jesus did NOT inherit his name from his Father who did he inherit from????? The foolishness of this is absurd.

Why do you insist on bearing false witness against Trinitarians by accusing them of believing in three Gods? Why do you insist on reading INTO the word of God instead of reading the word?

Jesus' name is HIS name, not His Father's name! I don't despise it but I do insist that it bears false witness against the word of God to say that it is His Father's name. Jesus is NOT - to use the ancient Jewish manner of naming - Jesus bar Jesus. He is not what amounts to Jesus, Jr. - which is exactly the nonsense you are espousing here when you say Jesus' name is the Father's name.

Jesus is the name given to God's only BEGOTTEN Son and, thus, the name is restricted to the MAN Christ Jesus. It is not the name of God or of the logos that John said "became flesh and dwelt among us."

[OGIA]

Originally Posted by Chan

The scripture doesn't say.

What I asked you was what the name was that the Lord manifested to those men. In John 17:6, what name was manifested to them by Jesus Christ?

No, not a mere piece of God, God Himself.

So, His "fatherhood" was manifested in the man Jesus Christ?

No, it isn't. More often than not what we see is the word LORD in all capital letters. What is being used there is essentially the tetragrammation YHVH. It is the name of God and not merely His fatherhood.

Ok, so the name that represents the tetragrammaton has been rendered as Yahweh or Jehovah. Agree, disagree?

There is no "which one" in God. Even the early Trinitarian Creeds acknowledge, "We believe in one God, the Father almighty...." This is consistent with what Paul said in 1 Corinthians 8:6, "There is one God, the Father..."

You seem to be contradicting yourself. If there is "ONE GOD, the Father", then Jesus Christ IS the Father, since He claimed to be God.

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

Sir there is ONLY God the Father in the Bible so if God was manifested in the flesh it HAD to be God the Father.

One God the Father Eph. 4:6!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!1

Jesus said I come in my Father's name. Jn. 5:43!
He inherited his Father's name. Heb. 1:4
There is but ONE name. Zech. 14:7

Ephesians 4:6 doesn't say there is this divine being called "God the Father." Try reading the text:

"One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all."

There is one God. This one God is the Father of all.

God is not limited to His fatherhood.

Again, you are WRONG about Zechariah 14:7 and I would have expected YOU of all people to know better.

[Steve Epley]

Originally Posted by Chan

Why do you insist on bearing false witness against Trinitarians by accusing them of believing in three Gods? Why do you insist on reading INTO the word of God instead of reading the word?

Jesus' name is HIS name, not His Father's name! I don't despise it but I do insist that it bears false witness against the word of God to say that it is His Father's name. Jesus is NOT - to use the ancient Jewish manner of naming - Jesus bar Jesus. He is not what amounts to Jesus, Jr. - which is exactly the nonsense you are espousing here when you say Jesus' name is the Father's name.

Jesus is the name given to God's only BEGOTTEN Son and, thus, the name is restricted to the MAN Christ Jesus. It is not the name of God or of the logos that John said "became flesh and dwelt among us."

This easy watch:

God the Father 1
God the Son 1
God the Holy Ghost 1
___________________
Equals 3


All are divine persons or beings possessing omnipresence-omnipotence-omniscience- separate and distinct of themselves.
Thus a Heavenly Committee!!!!!!!!

Originally Posted by OGIA

What I asked you was what the name was that the Lord manifested to those men. In John 17:6, what name was manifested to them by Jesus Christ?

The scripture doesn't say.

So, His "fatherhood" was manifested in the man Jesus Christ?

You really need to brush up on your reading skills. I said GOD was manifested, not God's fatherhood!

Ok, so the name that represents the tetragrammaton has been rendered as Yahweh or Jehovah. Agree, disagree?

Jehovah is a poor rendering.

You seem to be contradicting yourself. If there is "ONE GOD, the Father", then Jesus Christ IS the Father, since He claimed to be God.

No, Jesus is not the Father. Jesus is God's ONLY BEGOTTEN SON. Jesus is the name that applies ONLY to Jesus' humanity.

[Steve Epley]

Originally Posted by OGIA

What I asked you was what the name was that the Lord manifested to those men. In John 17:6, what name was manifested to them by Jesus Christ?


So, His "fatherhood" was manifested in the man Jesus Christ?


Ok, so the name that represents the tetragrammaton has been rendered as Yahweh or Jehovah. Agree, disagree?


You seem to be contradicting yourself. If there is "ONE GOD, the Father", then Jesus Christ IS the Father, since He claimed to be God.

God(the Father) was IN Christ!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! That is the difference. The flesh was not Diety it housed Deity.

[OGIA]

Originally Posted by Chan

The scripture doesn't say.

Oh.

You really need to brush up on your reading skills.

I wondered how long it would take you to begin the personal attacks with me.

I said GOD was manifested, not God's fatherhood!

And I asked you how God could be manifested in flesh but not His fatherhood. How can that happen if not by something of His diety being "left out" of that manifestation?

Jehovah is a poor rendering.

Which do you prefer?

No, Jesus is not the Father. Jesus is God's ONLY BEGOTTEN SON.

I agree. But, the Son IS the manifestation, in flesh, of the diety we call God the Father.

Jesus is the name that applies ONLY to Jesus' humanity.

Nope. The "Christ" part refers to His humanity. Jesus is rendered from Jehovah-Savior. Jehovah is the diety, Savior is the role. Christ, as you know, means Messiah, and the Messiah had to be flesh, so this term applies to His humanity.

[tbpew]

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

Sir there is ONLY God the Father in the Bible so if God was manifested in the flesh it HAD to be God the Father.

One God the Father Eph. 4:6!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!1

Jesus said I come in my Father's name. Jn. 5:43!
He inherited his Father's name. Heb. 1:4
There is but ONE name. Zech. 14:7

you write...
"if God was manifested in the flesh it HAD to be God the Father"
AMEN. That which was manifested in the flesh (the only begotten Son) was the Father.
where I will part company with you is if/when you purposely change
"manifested" into BECAME.

you also cited:
"Jesus said, "I come in my father's name
He inherited his Father's name"

AMEN, to the fact that the Son inherited his name from his father....ALL SONS do! Afterall, the scripture plainly states it is a FAMILY name.

Now, more in line with the kind of discussion we were having yesterday....
If I added to myself, or BECAME some new NATURE, I would not need to come in my FATHER's name, I could still, very well, come in my OWN name. I would think this must be curious for a concurrent manifestation viewholder.

Secondly,
INHERITING something must also be a curious word choice for persons holding a "multiple concurrent manifestation viewpoint" since how can one manifestation of a single person inherit something from another manifestation of himself?