Apostolic Litumus Test: Do you affirm - Yes or no? - Page 33

Rico · #**321** 07-01-2008, 02:03 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by JTULLOCK

Again the word originally used for baptism has tons of meanings Rico. It could read like this, based upon the original word used....He that believeth and is drowned shall be saved....He that believeth and is dipped shall be saved....He that believeth and is washed.....there are more too. These are just a few. I think that all believers should be baptized, but no scripture I have read makes it manditory, but if I were to preach I would strongly urge it, but can not out of being honest with my self say you gotta in order to be saved, but because you are saved you oughta do it.

Sorry, but this is getting more and more ridiculous. Now "baptized" doesn't mean "baptized?" The lengths some of y'all will go to.....................................tsk, tsk.

Praxeas · #**322** 07-01-2008, 02:07 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rico

Sorry, but this is getting more and more ridiculous. Now "baptized" doesn't mean "baptized?" The lengths some of y'all will go to.....................................tsk, tsk.

Rico, ignore them. The greek word for baptism means to submerge or inundate an object in fluid. In the bible that fluid was water. If it was just the hands being referred to the word might be translated dip, but one is still submerging their entire hand in the fluid.

We also have scriptures that clearly show the candidate for baptism went down INTO the water..

It's amazing how some people will try to make the word of God meaningless and incomprehensible. One might as well become a new ager if the Word of God has no absolute meaning behind it and is subject to personal feelings.

Baron1710 · #**323** 07-01-2008, 02:07 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rico

Sorry, but this is getting more and more ridiculous. Now "baptized" doesn't mean "baptized?" The lengths some of y'all will go to.....................................tsk, tsk.

How about Mark 16:9-20 doesn't appear at all in the oldest transcripts. How does that argument work for ya? BTW that is a true statement.

Rico · #**324** 07-01-2008, 02:08 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

This has not registered at all on many in this forum ... the the Apostles wrote this using one and the same word ...to mean pardon..

If one reads the bible in Spanish ... which we did growing up... there is no confusion ....

aphesis .... is translated in all verses in the Reina Valera w/ the same word "perdon".... The NIV does this also.

That is why I find this KJV inspired false doctrine of separating both words (forgiveness vs. remission) to mean two separate ideas as being very silly ....

Even Dr. Segraves acknowledges this in a symposium ... and how it relates to the contradictions not only found in presenting this as doctrine but in the UPCI's AOF:

Let's just chuck the KJV in the trash, in favor of the NIV. That should solve any and all disputes. There obviously has to be a reason why it was translated two different ways. My guess is it's somewhere in the context of how the original Greek language is written. Funny how Strong's is good enough when it agrees with some folks' beliefs but then isn't good enough when it doesn't. When it doesn't, ya hafta break out the lexicons and commentaries by those revered trinitarian commentators to find the truth. It's a conspiracy, I tell ya!

SDG · #**325** 07-01-2008, 02:09 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Rico, ignore them. The greek word for baptism means to submerge or inundate an object in fluid. In the bible that fluid was water.

More inaccuracies coming from the truth camp ....

The baptisms in the bible often speak of being immersed in water .... but also fire ... into Christ ... into His Spirit ...

Praxeas this is not for the sake of arguing but rather in proper and informed presentation of Holy Writ.

Baron1710 · #**326** 07-01-2008, 02:09 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rico

Let's just chuck the KJV in the trash, in favor of the NIV. That should solve any and all disputes. There obviously has to be a reason why it was translated two different ways. My guess is it's somewhere in the context of how the original Greek language is written. Funny how Strong's is good enough when it agrees with some folks' beliefs but then isn't good enough when it doesn't. When it doesn't, ya hafta break out the lexicons and commentaries by those revered trinitarian commentators to find the truth. It's a conspiracy, I tell ya!

You guess wrong my friend.

Rico · #**327** 07-01-2008, 02:11 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Baron1710

How about Mark 16:9-20 doesn't appear at all in the oldest transcripts. How does that argument work for ya? BTW that is a true statement.

Neither is 1John 5:7, but what does that have to do with anything? Let's just start ripping whatever isn't convenient out of the Bible. That way, we can make it say whatever we want and everybody gets their own personalized version of God's Word. Whaddya say? Sounds like a plan to me!

I'm just givin ya a hard time Bro.

SDG · #**328** 07-01-2008, 02:11 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rico

Let's just chuck the KJV in the trash, in favor of the NIV. That should solve any and all disputes. There obviously has to be a reason why it was translated two different ways. My guess is it's somewhere in the context of how the original Greek language is written. Funny how Strong's is good enough when it agrees with some folks' beliefs but then isn't good enough when it doesn't. When it doesn't, ya hafta break out the lexicons and commentaries by those revered trinitarian commentators to find the truth. It's a conspiracy, I tell ya!

No conspiracy ... you can read Spanish ... take the verses that have forgiveness of sin and remission of sin and look them up in your mom's Spanish bible ... tell me what you get ...

You see it would be impossible to teach what Ron said that forgiveness of sin and remission of sin happen at two different places because you'd have no bible for that in Spanish ...

Hence this parsing of words does not keep true in all contexts and disregards the words of the Apostles to have them fit a paradigm conveniently.

Brad Murphy · #**329** 07-01-2008, 02:14 PM

Which is why we should all learn Greek, Hebrew, Chaldee, etc. and read the original texts... where did we put those again?

Ron · #**330** 07-01-2008, 02:15 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rico

Sorry, but this is getting more and more ridiculous. Now "baptized" doesn't mean "baptized?" The lengths some of y'all will go to.....................................tsk, tsk.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Rico, ignore them. The greek word for baptism means to submerge or inundate an object in fluid. In the bible that fluid was water. If it was just the hands being referred to the word might be translated dip, but one is still submerging their entire hand in the fluid.

We also have scriptures that clearly show the candidate for baptism went down INTO the water..

It's amazing how some people will try to make the word of God meaningless and incomprehensible. One might as well become a new ager if the Word of God has no absolute meaning behind it and is subject to personal feelings.

Repentance & Remission are separate things in the Bible & in our Christian walk.

As I have heard recently from some in thier camp that "truth is subjective!"

Reminds me of some people I have prayed with at an altar over the years--I had more success praying for a brick wall than I did them seeing truth!

Some things never change!

Thank God for truth & a revelation of it!

Praying for you all!