Angels reproducing with humans possible?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

You are right, it can sometimes refer to a "virgin".

Using the same Hebrew word, "almah" or "haalmah" (5959) you have several translations using "virgin" for these scriptures:

Genesis 24:43
Exodus 2:8 (at least once)
Proverbs 30:19
Isaiah 7:14
Song of Songs 1:3
Song of Songs 6:8

But that's like translating the Hebrew word for young male as "Homosexual". That's not what it means. That is a theological interpretation and the bigger point is the NET bible presents a more accurate translation of what the word means. There is nothing in the context of Is 7 that suggests the woman is a virgin.

That is a theological bias based on what Matthew wrote

The whole point is you argued the NET bible was not accurate because that word is not translated as virgin and I maintained it was an accurate translation based on the Hebrew word.

And that is my point. Out of all the Translations, I believe the NET bible seeks to be the least biased in translation. I want to know what the bible REALLY says.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

But that's like translating the Hebrew word for young male as "Homosexual". That's not what it means. That is a theological interpretation and the bigger point is the NET bible presents a more accurate translation of what the word means. There is nothing in the context of Is 7 that suggests the woman is a virgin.

That is a theological bias based on what Matthew wrote

The whole point is you argued the NET bible was not accurate because that word is not translated as virgin and I maintained it was an accurate translation based on the Hebrew word.

And that is my point. Out of all the Translations, I believe the NET bible seeks to be the least biased in translation. I want to know what the bible REALLY says.

How could you translate that as a young male homosexual, when BDB defines the word, "almah" as a feminine noun - "noun feminine young woman (ripe sexually; maid or newly married);"? The only inference made toward a male is in the "voice" as a soprano - "falsetto of boys".

To be "ripe sexually" means to be mentally and physically ready for sexual relations. That means the person is a virgin.

These translations are not stretching their interpretation in any way defining "almah" as a virgin.

On the point of the NET, I don't have a single problem using any translation as a source of study. I am now reading a parallel Bible with the KJV/NLT. I read it in the KJV and then in the NLT. Sometimes the NLT makes more sense and sometimes it is flat compared to the KJV.

When I read, concerning the NET, that sometimes it is a little too dynamic in its renderings, delving into interpretation rather than simple translation, I am not going to put all of my confidence nor all my eggs in one basket to wholeheartedly support that particular work as the ONE and ONLY best source on the planet.

Again, the Strong's and neither was the KJV wrong on interpreting "virgin" in Isaiah 7:14. Too emphatically fight against that is just plain and simple bias on your part and it shows.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

How could you translate that as a young male homosexual, when BDB defines the word, "almah" as a feminine noun - "noun feminine young woman (ripe sexually; maid or newly married);"? The only inference made toward a male is in the "voice" as a soprano - "falsetto of boys".

That's not what I said

I said "But that's like translating the Hebrew word for young male as "Homosexual".

The word does not MEAN Homosexual. But if a young man is a homosexual you could certainly calling that man by the Hebrew word for "homosexual"

The point is neither word has any bearing on whether or not a woman is a virgin or a man is a homosexual

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

That's not what I said

I said "But that's like translating the Hebrew word for young male as "Homosexual".

The word does not MEAN Homosexual. But if a young man is a homosexual you could certainly calling that man by the Hebrew word for "homosexual"

The point is neither word has any bearing on whether or not a woman is a virgin or a man is a homosexual

Virgin is implied here - period. "noun feminine young woman (ripe sexually; maid or newly married);

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

Virgin is implied here - period. "noun feminine young woman (ripe sexually; maid or newly married);

No it's not. You are reading your argumentative bias into their words. If they wanted to say virgin they would not imply it. They would SAY it

A woman that has already had sex can still be "ripe sexually; maid or newly married"

Newly married couples usually have sex.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

No it's not. You are reading your argumentative bias into their words. If they wanted to say virgin they would not imply it. They would SAY it

A woman that has already had sex can still be "ripe sexually; maid or newly married"

Newly married couples usually have sex.

I read newly married as they haven't yet consummated the marriage. You can't prove it doesn't mean that. It's just your opinion v. mine. IMO, if you interpret that passage any other way, you are looking at a girl who committed the sin of fornication, which would be against the Law. For an analogy - "Ripe" means the fruit is ready to be picked, not that it has already been picked.

You're next.... yadayada

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

I read newly married as they haven't yet consummated the marriage. You can't prove it doesn't mean that. It's just your opinion v. mine. IMO, if you interpret that passage any other way, you are looking at a girl who committed the sin of fornication, which would be against the Law. For an analogy - "Ripe" means the fruit is ready to be picked, not that it has already been picked.

You're next.... yadayada

You're welcome to read anything as you like, just please don't tell me I said something I did not.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

But that's like translating the Hebrew word for young male as "Homosexual". .

Originally Posted by Praxeas

That's not what I said

I said "But that's like translating the Hebrew word for young male as "Homosexual".

The word does not MEAN Homosexual. But if a young man is a homosexual you could certainly calling that man by the Hebrew word for "homosexual"

Originally Posted by Praxeas

You're welcome to read anything as you like, just please don't tell me I said something I did not.

Fair enough. I acknowledge that I misread what you wrote above.

However, you still have to squeeze past "ripe" or totally overlook it to hold your view. Just sayin'....

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

Fair enough. I acknowledge that I misread what you wrote above.

However, you still have to squeeze past "ripe" or totally overlook it to hold your view. Just sayin'....

Im not overlooking it. Ripe just does not mean virgin.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Im not overlooking it. Ripe just does not mean virgin.

Fine, it's your choice how you see it. Apparently, 27 various Bible translations think that it does mean virgin.