Baptism question for One-Steppers - Page 11

pelathais · #**101** 03-31-2009, 06:45 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

"30 years??????????? however WITHOUT THE SHEDDING OF BLOOD THERE IS NO REMISSION." Heb. 9:22

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

By baptism with remission of sins in view. Their sins were remitted at Calvary just like ours. Each way baptism is UNTO remission of sins.

It was approximately 30 years from the time of John's ministry until the events described in Acts 19 took place.

You appear to be saying that John's disciples were indeed "shown salvation" and the "remission of sins" as Zacharias had called John's ministry (Luke 1:77). But then they had to wait 30 years (about) for the actual "remission of their sins" in Acts 19.

Yet Acts 2:38 and Mark 1:4 both use the same language for "the remission of sins." Whatever "remission" that takes place in your church as you practice Acts 2:38 is described with the same identical prepositions and verbs as John's ministry in Mark 1 and Luke 3.

Sins were remitted under John's ministry even before our Lord Himself stepped into the water in Matthew 3.

Steve Epley · #**102** 03-31-2009, 07:24 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais

It was approximately 30 years from the time of John's ministry until the events described in Acts 19 took place.

You appear to be saying that John's disciples were indeed "shown salvation" and the "remission of sins" as Zacharias had called John's ministry (Luke 1:77). But then they had to wait 30 years (about) for the actual "remission of their sins" in Acts 19.

Yet Acts 2:38 and Mark 1:4 both use the same language for "the remission of sins." Whatever "remission" that takes place in your church as you practice Acts 2:38 is described with the same identical prepositions and verbs as John's ministry in Mark 1 and Luke 3.

Sins were remitted under John's ministry even before our Lord Himself stepped into the water in Matthew 3.

The dispensation changed at Calvary and Pentecost. ONLY baptism in Jesus Name remits men sins from the day of Pentecost til the end of the church age.

Sam · #**103** 03-31-2009, 07:35 PM

Ananias told Saul to do three things:
1. Arise
2. Be baptized (or immerse yourself according to some translations)
3. Wash away your sins calling on the name of the Lord.

Three separate acts.

Just like number 2 (being baptized) is not the same as number 1 (arise),
number 3 (wash away your sins) is not the same as number 2 (be baptized).

three separate acts

Sam · #**104** 03-31-2009, 07:40 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by KWSS1976

Ok so somone answer this was there a father in heaven while jesus was on earth when matthew 28:19 was quoted..

The Father was in Heaven,
and He was everywhere in the universe,
and He was in Jesus.

pelathais · #**105** 03-31-2009, 08:01 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais

It was approximately 30 years from the time of John's ministry until the events described in Acts 19 took place.

You appear to be saying that John's disciples were indeed "shown salvation" and the "remission of sins" as Zacharias had called John's ministry (Luke 1:77). But then they had to wait 30 years (about) for the actual "remission of their sins" in Acts 19.

Yet Acts 2:38 and Mark 1:4 both use the same language for "the remission of sins." Whatever "remission" that takes place in your church as you practice Acts 2:38 is described with the same identical prepositions and verbs as John's ministry in Mark 1 and Luke 3.

Sins were remitted under John's ministry even before our Lord Himself stepped into the water in Matthew 3.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

The dispensation changed at Calvary and Pentecost. ONLY baptism in Jesus Name remits men sins from the day of Pentecost til the end of the church age.

So then, Zacharias should have said, "John will show salvation unto Israel and the remission of sins - but it doesn't really mean anything because the dispensation will change right after that, in fact forget what I just said ..."

Steve Epley · #**106** 03-31-2009, 08:50 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais

So then, Zacharias should have said, "John will show salvation unto Israel and the remission of sins - but it doesn't really mean anything because the dispensation will change right after that, in fact forget what I just said ..."

The salvation John showed was "behold the Lamb of God that taketh away the sins of the world." His coverts were baptized looking forward to their sins being remitted by that Lamb.

Hoovie · #**107** 03-31-2009, 09:01 PM

Of course there was a transitional era of sorts. Even much of the lawkeeping dissipated slowly.

Steve Epley · #**108** 03-31-2009, 09:07 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Stephen Hoover

Of course there was a transitional era of sorts. Even much of the lawkeeping dissipated slowly.

That is true.

Praxeas · #**109** 03-31-2009, 10:12 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

The text is on the MIDDLE voice thus a third party is baptized and invoking the name. There are NO self baptisms in the NT.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

The baptizers are commanded to baptize in the name Mt. 28:19 NOT the one being baptized. The argument is absurd.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steve Epley

No one said he baptized in his own name.

Bro Epley, can you read your two posts above. They were directed at me. I don't know why since I did not say anything about a self baptism or about baptising in the name of the one being baptized. You said "the argument is absurd", but I did not even make that argument

Steve Epley · #**110** 03-31-2009, 10:31 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Bro Epley, can you read your two posts above. They were directed at me. I don't know why since I did not say anything about a self baptism or about baptising in the name of the one being baptized. You said "the argument is absurd", but I did not even make that argument

Sorry I misread you. The argument has been made here. The argument is absurd that is why you didn't make it.