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  #91  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:41 PM
Dedicated Mind Dedicated Mind is offline
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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how do you interpret " BISHOP MUST BE HUSBAND OF ONE WIFE"
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  #92  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:43 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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The Pope and the Food Pope are wrong, most of the time, too.
Daniel, I might not always be right on all points of theology (I can barely spell it) but there are two things you can be assured of.

I am rarely wrong on food, and i generally dont make the kind of insulting comments you do without provacation.
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  #93  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:44 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Where can I buy one?
It's kind of a "build a Bible" thing. Most North American Churches have one.
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  #94  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:53 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Like it reads ... literally, DM.

One wife.
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  #95  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:54 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea View Post
You mean ... trinitarians have the Truth?
We rely on trinitarians for our Bible translations, much of our teaching material, lots of our sermons, and much of our music.
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  #96  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:55 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Originally Posted by Encryptus View Post
Was Paul speaking against jewelry per se, or was it against ostentatious displays of wealth at church?
What does the UPC Manual say?

and,

is the UPC manual on a par with the writings of Paul?

and

could the UPC manual be considered Scripture?
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  #97  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:58 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Originally Posted by Sam View Post
What does the UPC Manual say?

and,

is the UPC manual on a par with the writings of Paul?

and

could the UPC manual be considered Scripture?
Apparently the manual ... most importantly the article on Holiness and Fundmental Doctrine must be affirmed every two years and the bible doesn't.
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  #98  
Old 05-16-2008, 02:59 PM
Encryptus Encryptus is offline
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Originally Posted by Sam View Post
What does the UPC Manual say?

and,

is the UPC manual on a par with the writings of Paul?

and

could the UPC manual be considered Scripture?
Excellent questions, perhaps make a good poll.

Doubt would get that many affirmatives on this forum, but might on a couple others that come to mind.
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  #99  
Old 05-16-2008, 03:01 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Originally Posted by Dedicated Mind View Post
I Tim 3:2, " Bishop must be husband of one wife"
I Tim 3:12 " Deacons be husbands of one wife"
Tit 1:5,6 " elders...the husband of one wife"

D Bernard interprets this as one wife in life not in the polygamist sense.
And others interpret it as one wife at a time.
A woman who is dead or divorced is no longer a wife.
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  #100  
Old 05-16-2008, 03:01 PM
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Re: Did Paul intend for his writings to be Holy Wr

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Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea View Post
But what should we factor in formulating and teaching doctrine when it comes to the nature of these letters ...?

By Paul's admission some of it is personal opinion.
I think that personal opinion has a place in the church, yet not in doctrine. I feel that God is the ulitmate authority not Paul. There are things that he, Paul, taught that are good and profitable. There things that he taught there were not doctrinal, yet somehow they morphed into doctrine. I do not think that following what he taught is wrong nor do I think it would be wrong to not follow it. I think we should follow the moral teaching cause it is helpful to living a christian walk, but somethings are not essential to living for God.
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