End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11

[Scott Pitta]

Your view is different that the post made by rdp. If Paul did not prohibit women from speaking in 1 Tim. 2:12, then there are no limits on the role women have in the NT.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

There are those in Pentecost who value the old Azuza Street tradition.

I'm sorry to hear that, I would rather honor thus saith the Lord, and teach this book, chapter, and verse. No offence, by trying to defend doctrine against Baptists and Presbyterian with a plea of honoring Azusa Street nostalgia is farcical. Please no offense.

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

Paul told the women in Titus to teach, he did not say where they could or could not teach.

He did, he told them to teach young women, instruct young women, and gave them what to instruct them on. Adding to the word is unwise and will only end up getting you embarrassed in a real discussion.

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

Please read Titus 2:3. There were no limitation on where women could teach in Crete.

Elder women likewise are to be reverent in behavior, not slanderers or slaves to much wine. They are to teach what is good

Brother, if you are seeing something more than elder sister teaching younger sisters. Then you are looking through your filters of bias. This is no way to convince someone.

[rdp]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

Comparing the Titus passage to the Timothy passage is comparing apples to apples. Same subject matter. Same author. Different results. Reviewing the Timothy passage in the broader Pauline corpus is proper exegesis.

*First, what you're calling "exegesis" is actually "hermeneutics." Exegesis-proper involves dissecting the natural flow of the text via syntactical considerations, context, tense-mood relationship, consistent usage of the same (i.e., tense-mood relationship) by the current author (specifically in the same book), diagramming or phrasing, etc.


*In hermeneutics-proper, the student always begins with "intentional passages" (i.e., passages intended to specifically address the topic under consideration). In this subject, one would begin by looking at passages such as I Timothy 2.11-3.15, I Corinthians 14.34-35, Eph., Acts (i.e., passages intended to intentionally address the current topic). From there the student seeks to integrate "incidental passages" that address the same topic in an incidental fashion (e.g., I Cor. 11) resulting in an overall integrated hermeneutic & subsequent theology with a rock-solid construct.


*To take an incidental passage & seek to use it to override intentional passages alerts me that the individual is engaging in poor scholarship. Respectfully, it is clear you need to conduct more research into hermeneutics-proper.


*Again, you're merely offering deflection & smoke-screens - while refusing to interact with the originally-inspired biblical data in any meaningful fashion.


*Carry on & God Bless anyway.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

Your view is different that the post made by rdp. If Paul did not prohibit women from speaking in 1 Tim. 2:12, then there are no limits on the role women have in the NT.

For I do not allow a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over a mature man, but to be at REST.

Being at a state of rest certainly is not leading men, or taking part in the five fold ministry of leadership in the church.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

Your view is different that the post made by rdp. If Paul did not prohibit women from speaking in 1 Tim. 2:12, then there are no limits on the role women have in the NT.

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

I sure gave you a huge amount of material concerning ἡσυχία that it doesn't always mean absence of sound. Is our discussion over? Would you like to discuss the information which was already offered to you?

I'm amazed.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

HELPS Word-studies

Cognate: 2271 hēsyxía (from hēsyxos, "quiet, stillness") – quietness, implying calm; for the believer, 2271 (hēsyxía) is used of their God-produced calm which includes an inner tranquility that supports appropriate action. This term "does not mean speechlessness, which is more directly indicated by 4602 (sigḗ) (J. Thayer). See 2272 (hēsyxios).

I'm amazed

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

What about women Sunday School teachers ? What about women teaching their own kids the Bible ? Please remember, the church is the body of Christ. It is not a building where we have services. If women cannot teach, how will children learn to tie their shoes ?

You did not say what Paul meant about not having women teach. You asked a question in response to mine without having even answered mine.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by mfblume

You did not say what Paul meant about not having women teach. You asked a question in response to mine without having even answered mine.

Is it me or does that happens a lot around here?

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by mfblume

What did the bible mean when it said to not have a woman teach?

1Tim 2: 12 But I permit not a woman to teach, nor to have dominion over a man, but to be in quietness.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.

This is what i asked, Scott.

[Scott Pitta]

I probably passed my hermeneutics class prior to your birth. But, yes, I do blur my hermeneutics with my exegesis.

The Titus passage is parallel to the Timothy passage. Therefore, comparing the two has merit. The role of women in the use of spiritual gifts in the church is also of merit. That is why I compare prophesying with teaching. They are both public oral gifts. Both are affected by the "silent" rule of 1 Tim. 2:12.

I try not to present my academic background online. If my ideas have merit, it does not matter who I am.