Okay, I have a question for all the scholars on AFF.
Did Paul take scripture out of context? Examine the following:
1 Corinthias 14:
20Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.
21In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
Now, here is the text in the Old Testament:
Isaiah 28
5In that day shall the LORD of hosts be for a crown of glory, and for a diadem of beauty, unto the residue of his people,
6And for a spirit of judgment to him that sitteth in judgment, and for strength to them that turn the battle to the gate.
7But they also have erred through wine, and through strong drink are out of the way; the priest and the prophet have erred through strong drink, they are swallowed up of wine, they are out of the way through strong drink; they err in vision, they stumble in judgment.
8For all tables are full of vomit and filthiness, so that there is no place clean.
9Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts.
10For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
11For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
Isaiah is speaking about the coming captivity of his people. So, why did Paul quote this in the middle of a dissertation about speaking in tongues? Did he take scripture out of context?
P.S. I won't promise that this isn't a trap.
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