Otherwise , what will they do who are baptized for the dead ,if the dead do not rise at all ,What then are they baptizing for the dead ? 1 COR. 15 :29 NKJV
Now I understand a large portion of 1 .
Cor 15 deals with the resurrection of the dead ,and the effects of denial of the resurrection , and so forth.
But why does verse 29 mention baptizing for the dead ,surely the early church didn't vicariously baptize for dead people ?
Why is baptism for the dead mentioned in verse 29 ?
It does seems rather odd that this is mentioned in this passage of scripture.
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