The reference in Clement seems to be an example of what we were looking for, thanks. He emphasizes, "
born again of water and of God" apparently applying the inferential usage that the "Water and Spirit" folks have, though he doesn't specifically tie it to
John 3:5. Still, the wording is such that it seems pretty obvious that's what he had in mind.
The statement from Ireneaus is identical to the one before. The others, while emphasizing baptism, don't touch on our subject.
We don't really find anyone saying that the statement of Jesus in
John 3:5, "born of the water" is a command to be baptized or equates to water baptism itself. Even if we could find some of the Old Catholic Fathers to make that association, it really doesn't prove the association to be correct. From my reading, you don't really find
John 3:5's "born of water" being called baptism until the 19th Century Restoration movements in England and the U.S.
What we are lacking entirely is a case being made from the Bible itself that makes the inferential usage that the Water & Spirit folks use.
Threaded Mode
