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Originally Posted by coksiw
2. Regarding "polygamist", wasn't that already prohibited in the Roman empire at the time Paul wrote that letter?
3. That becomes a little bit subjective especially for those that divorced being already Christian. It could be actually that way, depending on the result of other bishops judging the reason for divorce. Think of someone that came to Christ, and the spouse divorced them as result. Or someone that was in Christ and the spouse, being initially converted, then departed back to the world.
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Actually, I found out that polygamy was "prohibited" according to the legislation of Justinian however the punishment was "infamia", which basically prohibits the person from political and public rights.
If that's the case, maybe Paul's words are literal, and that's it: a bishop can't be someone that is in the current status of "infamia" in the society for reasons like polygamy. Another reason for being in "infamia" was prostitution, and stuff of that nature.