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Originally Posted by coksiw
I explained it right there. I see plenty of evidences that they spoke Aramaic in Palestine, and yes, the Hebrew Scriptures was read in the synagogues, which then was explained in Aramaic.
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Actually, when Jesus was handed the scroll in the synagogue, the portion of Isaiah was from the Greek. Also the name "synagogue" is Greek. The Judeans called their places of gathering by the Greek title in the first century to this day. Again, the Greek was the language of the occupation going back to the time of Alexander and his generals. When Pompey enter into the city of Jerusalem in 63 BC, he didn't need a translator. He was met by Judeans who could speak Greek. Hebrew was a liturgical language, Greek was the language of commerce, and the Eastern Roman empire. Aramaic was the language of the people ever since they came out of Babylonian captivity. The New Testament was to be relayed around the known world, and since that was its purpose, ancient dead and local languages wouldn't reach the desired populace. The New Testament was to reach the hands of those in the Diaspora. Judeans all over the Roman Empire. If it was only written in Hebrew/Aramaic it would of been of little use to people of the empire. Especially the Roman Gentiles.
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Originally Posted by coksiw
Well, it wasn't what I meant. What I meant was that Jesus spoke in Aramaic those words, and the Gospel writer translated it into Greek to write it on the Greek autograph. I'm not saying the Gospel was originally written in Aramaic (as some say).
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Jesus spoke Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. Possibly Latin. Three languages were spoken in the city of Jerusalem. Greek, Aramaic, and Latin. Because we are told that the document nailed over the head of Jesus on the cross was in these three languages. Trilingual inscriptions were popular in the ancient world. The Behistun inscription includes three versions of the same text, written in three different cuneiform script languages: Old Persian, Elamite, and Akkadian, three Semitic languages. The Rosetta Stone has Greek, Hieroglyphics, and Demotic Egyptian. Interestingly enough, the name Egypt was given the country by the Greeks and Romans, Αἴγυπτος. But, I digress getting back to Jesus' document nailed over His head being trilingual. We are told that it was written trilingual because the crucifixion was near the city. Which means as all trilingual inscriptions were aiming that no one missed the message. The Judeans in Jerusalem could speak, and read at least languages.
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Originally Posted by coksiw
Well, an example is " Deuteronomy 32:43". We didn't have the variant reading containing the words quoted in the NT in Hebrew, but we had it the LXX. And then the DSS revealed that there was indeed a Hebrew variant reading that contained those words.
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This only proves that both renderings were contemporary. In the DSS there are scrolls of the OT in Greek. Another thing, during the Bar Kokhba revolt against the Roman Empire in 132 AD. Messages went back and forth in Hebrew. Only the Zealot officers were able to read these messages. As the leaders of the rebellion were killed off, the regular soldiers sent messages back written in Greek. Complaining that they were unable to read the Hebrew.
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Originally Posted by coksiw
Do you use the LXX for the O.T. for your reading, study, and preaching? What are you thoughts?
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I use both. Yet, it is interesting to note, that I use Bibles which are in different languages. Which I found over the years how translation from one language to another is no lite matter.