One In The Greek

[Michael The Disciple]

How can Jesus and the Father be one person yet Jesus be in close relationship with and talk with the Father? How can Jesus be described as "he" in distinction from the Father, when he and the Father are one person?

Because of the concept of "modalism".

Jesus as a man was not one person with God. He was one person with God in his deity.

In one mode of being he was God. The only God.

In another mode of being he was man and not God.

It still works this way. Right now as God, Jesus is THE GOD. YAH.

Right now Jesus in his humanity is not God but rather he is THE MAN, JESUS CHRIST.

He is not as some SEEM to portray a God man. Kind of half God and half man.

The distinction when Jesus speaks of his God is between his humanity and his deity.

Do you think of or refer to the Father and Jesus as "they" since Jesus describes his relationship with the Father as "We" and "us"? Jesus in one place even likens he and the Father to two witnesses giving testimony: "16 But if I do judge, my decisions are true, because I am not alone. I stand with the Father, who sent me. 17 In your own Law it is written that the testimony of two witnesses is true. 18 I am one who testifies for myself; my other witness is the Father, who sent me" (John 8.16-18).

Its when Jesus is speaking as a man he says "us" and "we" and rightly so. From his human nature Jesus sees God as his Father.

Rev. 1:6

6And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever.

Rev 3:21

21To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

My creed is:

1 Tim. 2:5

5For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

There is one God (Christ in his deity) and one man.

Not 2 God persons.

This is one reason I have been inquiring about the Greek for "one". I have been using this in discussion/debate with the Trins and so far they have not addressed it. To me it seems it cannot be refuted. Nonetheless if and when they challenge the Greek I want to be as certain as possible that the Greek for one God and one man is the same.