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Re: Adultery vs Fornication
Pauline Exception? Upon what authority does Paul make "exceptions" to God's instructions concerning marriage?
I think a lot of confusion is the result of not properly understanding the point and purpose of the laws, commandments, statutes, judgments etc. "For the gentiles, for the Jews", marriage and divorce are different for Jews and gentiles? Different rules? What is lawful for one is not for the other, or vice versa?
Is it not possible that there are no "exceptions", that it was all spelled out in the Law, and that the NT provides correct interpretation and application of the Law concerning marriage and divorce?
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