Tithing…Is it a command?

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by Pliny

I asked when tithing is said to have ceased. Thank you for your response.

However, your emphasis on "tithing" here is wrong. This chapter is not about tithing. It's about the pre-eminence of Christ and His priesthood. Incidentally, Abraham gave tithes to Melchizedek prior to the covenant of circumcision. Also since we are on the subject of tithing and Abraham gave tithes to Melchizedek, and all the Levites as well, and Christs priesthood is patterned after Melchizedek and Melchizedek received tithes then Christ's priesthood receives tithes as well. Thank you for allowing me to demonstrate that point.

Isn't that just an assumption? And if Christ receives tithes based on that assumption, wouldn't he receive them one time as Melchizedek did from Abraham, and would it not have to be on spoils? How do we pay them personally to our Melchizedek? Abraham paid them personally to Melchizedek and not to some go between. So your analogy really does not work here at all. Are you really building a doctrine for the New Testament church on this? Furthermore, where do we see where God commanded Abraham to pay these tithes, as in "instituting" this? Something that occurred once is not an institution. And if we are the children of Abraham by faith, aren't we also credited as Levi of having paid these tithes?