Quote:
Originally Posted by shag
To me, the question all this basically hinges on is this: When exactly or at what point exactly did the Spirit become indwelling in the persons in scripture(in Acts), because a person can NOT inherit eternal life without the Spirit indwelling, because we are NOT His, according to this verse. (right?)
Romans 8:9 You, however, are controlled not by the sinful nature but by the Spirit, if the Spirit of God lives in you. And if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Christ.
So the question begs(1st, before discussing/deciding the necessity of tongues), did folks have the Spirit indwelling them before they recived the Spirit in Acts 2, 8, 10, and 19? It seems to me no, or they would not have recived the Spirit if it was already in them. And Rom. 8:9 reads we have to have His Spirit in us it to be His.
Maybe Im missing or overlooking something tho..? |
No, you're not missing something.
There are a couple of different opinions here.
Some of us believe that at the moment a person repents and turns his/her life over to Jesus and asks Him into their life that He does come in as the Holy Spirit and saves us and regenerates us.
Ephesians 1:13 says, "And now you Gentiles have also heard the truth, the Good News that God saves you. And when you believed in Christ, he identified you as his own by giving you the Holy Spirit, whom he promised long ago."
1 John 5:1 says, "If you believe that Jesus is the Christ --that He is God's Son and your Savior-- then you are a child of God." This salvation experience then may be followed up by a subsequent filling with the Spirit, a receiving of (making room for) the Spirit, or a Baptism in the Spirit.
Others do not believe that the Holy Spirit comes in or regenerates or saves a person until that person has spoken with tongues.
There are differences among Apostolics on this.
Threaded Mode
