Do You Believe In Women Preachers?

[TheRationalist]

Originally Posted by TK Burk

But Paul didn't write in Latin, he used Greek. In the Greek it is very plainly a MASCULINE noun.

Originally Posted by TheRationalist

Logic would dictate one who prophesies is a prophet.

Unfortunately, use of a lexicon does not render full understanding of a language, the masculine gender in a noun does NOT mean it only describes males. This is pretty much a universal fact for example in Spanish "chicos", which translates as boys, would still be the word used if it were in fact 99 girls and only one boy. Most of the Romance languages (languages based on Latin) as well as Greek etc. would follow this rule. Summary: the use of a masculine noun in NO wise is correctly rendered to be exclusionary to females.

BUMP for Mr Burk. I understand your confusion especially if you are conversant only in English, but the gender of a noun in most foreign tongues INCLUDING Greek is in no way evidence of the gender of the person(s) you are attempting to address. ESPECIALLY this is true of a mixture of male and female individuals. The masculine gender is used period.