Why Sunday

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Being unable to bear doesn’t mean unable to keep.
John’s parents, Zechariah and Elizabeth, including Paul himself kept the law and considered blameless. Sometimes it looks like we are accusing God of unfairness. Which He created a law system which no one could follow. Then when they fail at it, they are severely punished? Adam and Eve weren’t given a law which was impossible to keep. Don’t eat from this one tree. Yet, a series of events caused the transgression. Same with the nation of Israel. No, Peter isn’t talking about impossibility of law keeping, but heaviness of law keeping.

But it was so heavy they could not bear it.

The issue of God creating a law system that no one could follow is actually something I would like you to consider. I think that’s a part of what Paul meant when he said that Law was in effect in order to show that man needs God. Paul explained in Romans 1 how wicked gentiles were in stooping to even homosexuality as the result of lowering the image of God below that of the status of a man. Chapter 2 showed Paul explaining that even the Jews who had the Law were really no better than the gentiles because they sinned as much as the gentiles did.

Then Paul made a statement to sum it all up. He says the law came only to find Israel unable to keep it and sin like the gentiles in order to show something. This lets us know that God sent the law for this purpose. He knew Israel would break it, but not only due to his foresight.

Romans 3:19-20 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. (20) Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.


The law came to speak to those under it in order to shut the mouths of everyone, implying it was not only Gentiles who were shown to be wicked, but Israel as well. Both gentiles and Jews were just as sinful. The statement, “that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God,” shows a purpose of Law. How could it say that if God knew they would not obey it successfully? And then Paul takes that further and makes a conclusion. Because of this, Paul said, no flesh can be justified in his sight by the deeds of the law. He gives the reason for this by saying the law merely provided the knowledge of sin. That tells me God knew man could not keep it successfully.

And to shows this even more, Romans 3 also said…

Romans 3:21-22 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; (22) Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:


The only explanation for this sequence of points that he made is that God sent law to inform man of sin, and Israel was found to be just as sinful as Gentiles who had no such information. (It’s as though he said that it’s not enough to have the knowledge of what is sin.) And when he said that righteousness of God apart from the law was manifested, he was saying that you could not become righteous by keeping law. Obedience to the Law would not make a person righteous. If one is able to successfully keep the law fully, one would have been righteous and just. If not, why not?

Leviticus 18:5 said that one would live if one did all the works of the law. Paul said that one is cursed if one is under the law in Gal 3:10. He said that the reason they are cursed is because if you cannot continue to do all that the law says, you are cursed.

We have to ask ourselves, why would Paul say we are cursed because the Law claimed that everyone who is unable to continue in all of the law would be cursed? Couldn’t someone stand up and say, “I can keep it all. Why do you say everyone that is cursed on the basis of inability to continue means you are cursed?” The only answer is that no one can possible continue in the law without failing.

Galatians 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.


Can people please respond to this single verse above?

Read it in the ISV:

Galatians 3:10 Certainly all who depend on the actions of the Law are under a curse. For it is written, "A curse on everyone who does not obey everything that is written in the Book of the Law!"


If it is true that it is NOT impossible to keep all of the law successfully, why did Paul quote Deut 27:26 to say that a curse is on everyone who cannot keep it all? It looks quite plainly to be saying that everyone is cursed who is under law because no one is able to keep all the law.

Deuteronomy 27:26 Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And all the people shall say, Amen.


And then we read this:

Galatians 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.


The scripture is the Old Covenant. And it concluded that all are under sin. Romans 3 explains that by comparing Israelites with Gentiles in chapter 3, every mouth is stopped, and none can point the finger to anyone else in accusations of sin.

I love this topic. Let's keep dsicussing!