Why Sunday

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by mfblume

No no no.

Paul clearly described INABILITY when he said to will was present but how to perform was not, and I recall that you changed the obvious reading to mean the point was actually NOT WILLING, which habit of changing plain reading is most common with sabbath keepers, as in 2 Cor 3, Col 2, and Gal 4.

Changing "remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy...the seventh day is the Sabbath" to "remember to rest in Jesus...Jesus is the Sabbath" seems quite common for antisabbatarians.

Romans 6 is speaking about saved people who do not have to yield to sin unlike those unregenerated and not saved who must.

Talk about "changing the plain reading" lol. Let's read it again:


Romans 6:16-17 KJV
Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness? [17] But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you.

Paul states a truism: you are the slave of whoever you submit to, whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness. He then says "you were the slaves of sin" - keeping in mind that "you are the slave of what you yield yourself as a slave to". Therefore, they were the servants of sin because they had yielded themselves as servants unto sin. He then says "But you have obeyed the teaching that was delivered to you, from the heart". This is clearly the pre-conversion and post-conversion states of the readers being contrasted.

Romans 6:18 KJV
Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.

See? This is the effect of conversion. Therefore they were servants of sin prior to conversion.

Romans 6:19 KJV
I speak after the manner of men because of the infirmity of your flesh: for as ye have yielded your members servants to uncleanness and to iniquity unto iniquity; even so now yield your members servants to righteousness unto holiness.

This is the very next verse. He makes it plain: AS YOU HAVE YIELDED YOURSELF TO BE A SLAVE TO SIN, SO NOW YIELD YOURSELF AS A SLAVE TO RIGHTEOUSNESS. Very simple and straightforward.

After he tells them the truths of what happened to them in their deaths with Christ he lets them know that being saved a dn sinning was actually YIELDING to sin. For sinners it most certainly is not a yielding. And it is a yielding to sin when it does not have to be becuase sin shall not have dominion over the saved ones who are dead indeed to sin and alive to God through Jesus. Verse 13 cannot be understood with tout verses 11 and 12 before it. Saved people often are bound by sin, because they do not KNOW, RECKON and YIELD in the manners Paul explained. Saints who never learn these truths, and most rarely ever do (!!), will not be able to resist sin, like Rom 7 describes. Most yield to sin because they think they can't resist. they don't know it's a yield, unlike a must for sinners, because they "KNOW YE NOT?" as Paul repeated so much in this chapter.

Romans 6:1 KJV
What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?

The believer is not to CONTINUE in sin. That means there is a hypothetical uninterrupted condition of sinning, begun in the unregenerate state and (hypothetically here) CONTINUING into the regenerate state. Therefore, the "servant to sin" condition spoken of in the verses following apply first to the unregenerate, then to the regenerate who fails to act like he has in fact been regenerated. The voluntary nature of sin is clearly established here (and elsewhere).

No. The sinner cannot help it

How then is the sinner ACCOUNTABLE for his sin?

It is crime because the person still did it and it is still wrong.

If a person with Tourrette's cusses their mom, are they guilty of cursing their mother and DESERVING OF DEATH?

And let's not go on with the conclusion you claim when you're talking to someone who denies such a conclusion altogether.... again. Just because you cannot see another conclusion does not mean there is none.

No, rather, let's not ignore the logical conclusions of faulty reasoning just because the faulty reasoner chooses to believe their conclusion follows from their premises.

If sin is transgression of the law, and sin is involuntary (as you seem to be asserting), then is that why you do not obey the 4th commandment? You can't help it?