Quote:
Originally Posted by Steve Epley
I do not believe one word of this as anything to do with 1Cor.14!
Verses 2-4 clearly states the tongue spoken was NOT understood by the speaker not some rabbi reading the Torah. Good grief!  
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Don't get yourself in a tuff this morning Pastor Epley, grab some coffee(If you believe in that) and lets have a discussion.
It does not specify that the speaker does not understand. Think maybe it could imply those listening?
Tractate Megillah, folio 3a. states:"And they read in the book, in the law of God, with an interpretation, and they gave the sense and caused them to understand the reading".
Are you saying that you have solid proof that the early church that was full of Jews did a quick clean break from all Judaic practices? From everything I've read....I'll site the sources if you wish....there was definitely the reading of the torah in the synagogue.