Do all speak with tongues?

[houston]

"Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?"

The answer is, "no." I think most will agree.

Some would say that Paul is differentiating between the gift of tongues and initial evidence. I can not find where the scripture draws that line. So, I'm asking those of you who believe that Paul was addressing tongues as a gift rather than initial evidence, (please) show me where the Bible speaks of tongues as a gift and a distinction of tongues as initial evidence that someone has received the baptism of the Holy Ghost.

I also ask that those of you who do NOT believe in initial evidence to (please) refrain from posting here. This is an honest post, and I do not want to see it turn into a debate.

Cordially,
Houston

[Amanah]

Hi Houston, I'm going to just add my two cents in the interim. I'm sure someone will come along who can explain things much better than I can.

Jesus said we must be born again of the water and spirit John 3:5

John said Jesus would baptize with the Holy Ghost and with fire Matthew 3:11

Peter said we are born again by the gospel 1 Peter 1:23-25

According to Luke 24 the preaching of the gospel began at Jerusalem

The gospel embraces Jesus' death, burial, and resurrection 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 and could not have happened until Jesus died

In Acts 1:4-8 the disciples asked when the Kingdom of God would come and they were told to wait for the promise of the Holy Ghost

The Kingdom of God is righteousness peace and joy in the HG, so it could not come until the HG was given Romans 14:17

On the day of Pentecost they were all filled with the HG and began to speak with other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance Acts 2:1-4. This is when the supernatural Kingdom of God was set up upon the earth.

When the gentiles received the Holy Ghost in response to the gospel, they knew it because they heard them speak with tongues Acts 10:44-46

So speaking in tongues is initial evidence.

There is a difference between the Gift (singular) of the Holy Ghost Acts 2:38 1 Corinthians 12:13

and the Gifts (plural) of the Spirit 1 Corinthians 12 Romans 12

[houston]

Hello, Amanah,

I know all that. What I'm looking for is where Paul made a distinction. I have a friend who is ex AOG. He is now a Reformed Baptst. I asked him about the accounts in Acts where people received the Holy Ghost with initial evidence. This is what he told me. He stated that (in the Greek) the text (Acts) DOES require evidence, which would be glossolalia. My mind was blown.

But, he stated (position I currently hold) that the evidence was a sign to the Jews that God was saving Gentiles. That is what we see in Acts. Even Peter (I think) stated something like "they received the Holy Ghost as we did in the beginning." I paraphrase.

It looks like, to me, that I may be making full circle in my beliefs. I have already posted in another thread that I want to come home (Epley would be thrilled). But, I feel that as I currently stand, I do not belong.

Maybe I'll wait it out and see if I make full circle before I find a church to attend.

Who knows. Maybe some day my dream of being an itinerant preacher in the Apostolic and Pentecostal movement WILL come to pass. *shrugs*

[Amanah]

Houston, please don't wait to attend church, you might be feeling some resistance in your spirit but the Holy Ghost can speak to you in a church service in very powerful ways that will bring clarity, guidance, and direction. Listen to that still small voice.

[JoeBandy]

Originally Posted by houston

Hello, Amanah,

I know all that. What I'm looking for is where Paul made a distinction. I have a friend who is ex AOG. He is now a Reformed Baptst. I asked him about the accounts in Acts where people received the Holy Ghost with initial evidence. This is what he told me. He stated that (in the Greek) the text (Acts) DOES require evidence, which would be glossolalia. My mind was blown.

But, he stated (position I currently hold) that the evidence was a sign to the Jews that God was saving Gentiles. That is what we see in Acts. Even Peter (I think) stated something like "they received the Holy Ghost as we did in the beginning." I paraphrase.

It looks like, to me, that I may be making full circle in my beliefs. I have already posted in another thread that I want to come home (Epley would be thrilled). But, I feel that as I currently stand, I do not belong.

Maybe I'll wait it out and see if I make full circle before I find a church to attend.

Who knows. Maybe some day my dream of being an itinerant preacher in the Apostolic and Pentecostal movement WILL come to pass. *shrugs*

1 Corinthians 14:22 IMO adds to the question. Can someone explain the sign of tongues here ? Also who is the believer and the unbeliever??

[houston]

Originally Posted by JoeBandy

1 Corinthians 14:22 IMO adds to the question. Can someone explain the sign of tongues here ? Also who is the believer and the unbeliever??

Not a sign to the unpursuaded, a sign to the pursuaded


Ok. That doesn't help.

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by houston

Hello, Amanah,

I know all that. What I'm looking for is where Paul made a distinction. I have a friend who is ex AOG. He is now a Reformed Baptst. I asked him about the accounts in Acts where people received the Holy Ghost with initial evidence. This is what he told me. He stated that (in the Greek) the text (Acts) DOES require evidence, which would be glossolalia. My mind was blown.

But, he stated (position I currently hold) that the evidence was a sign to the Jews that God was saving Gentiles. That is what we see in Acts. Even Peter (I think) stated something like "they received the Holy Ghost as we did in the beginning." I paraphrase.

If He is filling both Jew and Gentile, how is that not showing that all speak in tongues? It can't just be a sign for the Jews, because it then must also be a sign for the Gentiles.

It looks like, to me, that I may be making full circle in my beliefs. I have already posted in another thread that I want to come home (Epley would be thrilled). But, I feel that as I currently stand, I do not belong.

Maybe I'll wait it out and see if I make full circle before I find a church to attend.

Who knows. Maybe some day my dream of being an itinerant preacher in the Apostolic and Pentecostal movement WILL come to pass. *shrugs*

I've always believed God has a plan for your life, and you would be a powerhouse.

[houston]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

If He is filling both Jew and Gentile, how is that not showing that all speak in tongues? It can't just be a sign for the Jews, because it then must also be a sign for the Gentiles.




I've always believed God has a plan for your life, and you would be a powerhouse.

Ok. So if all do, then your stance is that Paul was differentiating a gift from the gift, correct?

I was waiting for you to comment so I can say, "I know that you have prayed for me, so this is all your fault."

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by houston

Ok. So if all do, then your stance is that Paul was differentiating a gift from the gift, correct?

I was waiting for you to comment so I can say, "I know that you have prayed for me, so this is all your fault."

Right, you don't want me to pray for you. LOL! And for the record, I know what I feel when I pray for you and I know why I never stop praying for you. God just won't let you go.

Yes, my stance is that Paul was differentiating between the initial infilling from the gifts that we operate having that initial infilling.

The reason I believe in the initial infilling, which is accompanied by a sign, i.e. speaking in tongues, is that Jesus sent the disciples to the upper room to wait for that infilling. All of those waiting in the upper room were, indeed, filled with the baptism of the Holy Ghost and began to speak in tongues. The main point being - every person that obeyed what Jesus told them to do were filled with the Holy Ghost, speaking in other tongues.

One other matter of importance is that the Jews who heard the 120 speaking in tongues were amazed and wanted to know what it was all about. Peter tells them that it was the fulfilled prophecy - "I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh."

Now, the gifts of the spirit are addressed in I Corinthians 12, but notice in verse 1. I will have this in the NLV - " 2 I write to God’s church in the city of Corinth. I write to those who belong to Christ Jesus and to those who are set apart by Him and made holy."

He is writing to a people who were already saved, filled and made holy (if they continue in the faith, of course).

[Pressing-On]

Houston, I really believe this book would bless you. It is very well written. You can purchase it in Kindle, if you like. It is very matter of fact and down to earth. I think you would like it.



https://www.amazon.com/Chances-We-Ta...hoices+we+make