Femine In Greek ?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson

I'm not as proficient in greek and hebrew as I would like to be.

Well you know about as much as I do then. Im just curious why the feminine is used here, but in the other instances it's a masculine word. In fact verse 2 is masculine accusatory, singlar masculine

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Brother I don't think this is a feminine word. The ending is not the same that you might see in the dictionary like Thayers. Often, like strongs, they will list one varient of the word, give that gender and ignore the rest.

Example...when you see "one" Strongs often says "Heis", masculine number for one. But the truth is there are three words, hen, heis and mia that are neuter, masculine and feminine respectively. Strongs is liike that for some reason.

I am looking at the ending and it is not the same word that appears in Thayers "list" that often comes on the internet for free, but is not a lexicon but just a dictionary

You will know for sure if it is feminine by the article that precedes it. Check out a verse with the word bishop in it, then the Greek and see what the article is. Feminine articles are only used for feminine nouns.

[Scott Hutchinson]

A kind person sent me this link last night.
http://ntgreek.org
I've got to check into this some more.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

You will know for sure if it is feminine by the article that precedes it. Check out a verse with the word bishop in it, then the Greek and see what the article is. Feminine articles are only used for feminine nouns.

As are pronouns, however there might not be an article before the noun.

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

As are pronouns, however there might not be an article before the noun.

In the KJV, these are the only three references to bishop that came up in a search. In esword, the first two are masculine and have masculine articles.

The first two instances of the word, bishop, are N=noun, A=accusative case, S=singular, M=masculine. Each has the article, tov, which agrees with the noun in case, person, and gender. I'm a little confused because the accusative case is not the subject of the verb, but is the direct object of the verb. I thought the word, bishop, was the subject of the sentence which would have put it in the nominative case.

The last verse the use of the word, bishop, includes "the office of the Bishop" and is feminine. So the Greek word meaning office of a bishop as opposed to a bishop is different. I don't know if this helps you at all.

1Ti 3:2 δει must 1163 V-PQI-3S ουν then 3767 CONJ τον 3588 T-ASM επισκοπον A bishop 1985 N-ASM ανεπιληπτον blameless 423 A-ASM ειναι be 1511 V-PXN μιας 1520 A-GSF γυναικος wife 1135 N-GSF ανδρα the husband 435 N-ASM νηφαλεον vigilant 3524 A-ASM σωφρονα 4998 V-PQI-3S κοσμιον of good behavior 2887 A-ASM φιλοξενον given to hospitality 5382 A-ASM διδακτικον apt to teach. 1317 A-ASM

Tit 1:7 δει must 1163 V-PQI-3S γαρ For 1063 CONJ τον 3588 T-ASM επισκοπον a bishop 1985 N-ASM ανεγκλητον blameless 410 A-ASM ειναι be 1511 V-PXN ως as 5613 ADV θεου of God 2316 N-GSM οικονομον the steward 3623 N-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N αυθαδη self-willed 829 A-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N οργιλον soon angry 3711 A-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N παροινον given to wine 3943 A-ASM μη no 3361 PRT-N πληκτην striker 4131 N-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N αισχροκερδη given to filthy lucre. 146 A-ASM

1Ti 3:1 πιστος This a true 4103 A-NSM ο 3588 T-NSM λογος saying 3056 N-NSM ει 1487 COND τις 5100 X-NSM επισκοπης the office of a bishop 1984 N-GSF ορεγεται desire 3713 V-PMI-3S καλου a good 2570 A-GSN εργου work 2041 N-GSN επιθυμει he desireth. 1937 V-PAI-3S

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

In the KJV, these are the only three references to bishop that came up in a search. In esword, the first two are masculine and have masculine articles.

The first two instances of the word, bishop, are N=noun, A=accusative case, S=singular, M=masculine. Each has the article, tov, which agrees with the noun in case, person, and gender. I'm a little confused because the accusative case is not the subject of the verb, but is the direct object of the verb. I thought the word, bishop, was the subject of the sentence which would have put it in the nominative case.

The last verse the use of the word, bishop, includes "the office of the Bishop" and is feminine. So the Greek word meaning office of a bishop as opposed to a bishop is different. I don't know if this helps you at all.

1Ti 3:2 δει must 1163 V-PQI-3S ουν then 3767 CONJ τον 3588 T-ASM επισκοπον A bishop 1985 N-ASM ανεπιληπτον blameless 423 A-ASM ειναι be 1511 V-PXN μιας 1520 A-GSF γυναικος wife 1135 N-GSF ανδρα the husband 435 N-ASM νηφαλεον vigilant 3524 A-ASM σωφρονα 4998 V-PQI-3S κοσμιον of good behavior 2887 A-ASM φιλοξενον given to hospitality 5382 A-ASM διδακτικον apt to teach. 1317 A-ASM

Tit 1:7 δει must 1163 V-PQI-3S γαρ For 1063 CONJ τον 3588 T-ASM επισκοπον a bishop 1985 N-ASM ανεγκλητον blameless 410 A-ASM ειναι be 1511 V-PXN ως as 5613 ADV θεου of God 2316 N-GSM οικονομον the steward 3623 N-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N αυθαδη self-willed 829 A-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N οργιλον soon angry 3711 A-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N παροινον given to wine 3943 A-ASM μη no 3361 PRT-N πληκτην striker 4131 N-ASM μη not 3361 PRT-N αισχροκερδη given to filthy lucre. 146 A-ASM

1Ti 3:1 πιστος This a true 4103 A-NSM ο 3588 T-NSM λογος saying 3056 N-NSM ει 1487 COND τις 5100 X-NSM επισκοπης the office of a bishop 1984 N-GSF ορεγεται desire 3713 V-PMI-3S καλου a good 2570 A-GSN εργου work 2041 N-GSN επιθυμει he desireth. 1937 V-PAI-3S

Perhaps the antecedent here is the subject. Tis (translated anyone or anyman) is in the nominative case. It might be the subect then of both verses

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Perhaps the antecedent here is the subject. Tis (translated anyone or anyman) is in the nominative case. It might be the subect then of both verses

I think you're right! But does that mean a bishop can be a "she" if we translate 'tis' as ANYONE?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

I think you're right! But does that mean a bishop can be a "she" if we translate 'tis' as ANYONE?

I think tis is in the masculine....

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

I think tis is in the masculine....

So 'anyone' means 'any male'?

The Greek word for sin is feminine. Does that mean only females can sin?

Joh 1:29 τη The 3588 T-DSF επαυριον next day 1887 ADV βλεπει seeth 991 V-PAI-3S ο the 3588 T-NSM ιωαννης John 2491 N-NSM τον the 3588 T-ASM ιησουν Jesus 2424 N-ASM ερχομενον coming 2064 V-PNP-ASM προς unto 4314 PREP αυτον him 846 P-ASM και and 2532 CONJ λεγει saith 3004 V-PAI-3S ιδε 1492 V-AAM-2S ο of the 3588 T-NSM αμνος Lamb 286 N-NSM του 3588 T-GSM θεου of God 2316 N-GSM ο 3588 T-NSM αιρων which taketh away 142 V-PAP-NSM την 3588 T-ASF αμαρτιαν sin 266 N-ASF του 3588 T-GSM κοσμου world. 2889 N-GSM

[Michael The Disciple]

This may be off the subject but I have heard the Hebrew word for God ELOAH is feminine?