Why Acts 2:38 Uses The Word “remission”

[BrotherEastman]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

You go ACTEON ... great copy and paste job from the 'new' water and spirit doctrine theologians.

Whats wrong with it?

[J-Roc]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Who said it wasn't necessary for them to do ????

It is so amazing how people will keep interpreting "not being salvific" with "not being necessary"

....they just love doing figure eights.....


Don't they understand that when they partake in Lord's Supper (and rightfully so) they are doing something necessary as we were commanded to do, but it is not salvific to partake in the sacrament of the Supper. What I don't understand is there inconsistency in that they say one sacrament (water baptism) is required for salvation, but I don't hear them saying the other sacrament (partaking in the Lord's Supper) is required for salvation.


"Then he took the cup, gave thanks and offered it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you. This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father's kingdom." (Matthew 26)

[SDG]

Originally Posted by BrotherEastman

Whats wrong with it?

Simply complimenting him on presenting his version of truth.

[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by JTULLOCK

IYO. And your opinion is wrong, brother. We can not and will not explain away any verse. Any of you have yet to give a valid reason on why sins would not be forgiven when someone receives the HG before baptism. Not even a fair answer has been given. Now lets see who explains away scripture

Do you have a scripture that states sins are remitted when one receives the Holy Ghost? or when one believes in the gospel?

If you believe as Daniel does, that faith alone in Christ alone saves you, then you must also believe that you receive the Spirit of Christ and remission of sins upon faith and that Acts 2:38 is extra stuff we do after we are saved. Is that what you believe?

[BrotherEastman]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Simply complimenting him on presenting his version of truth.

Your a piece of work, do you know that?

[SDG]

Originally Posted by BrotherEastman

Your a piece of work, do you know that?

Thank you ... by the power of the Holy Ghost.

[J-Roc]

Originally Posted by OGIA

Ok.


But opinion does not = God's word. Again, I ask you to supply one verse that defines when and where remission of sins occurs other than Acts 2:38.

I'm your Huckleberry, OGIA. You asked for a verse, here you go....there, JT, you are off the hook...


"And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. (Matthew 26)

Originally Posted by Actaeon

So there you have it folks, these magpies are actually trying to erase "remission" from Acts 2:38.

I think their argument is with God. So I will let them go at it.

And you haven't shown that "remission" is the word Luke used in Acts 2:38 (particularly since English didn't even exist as a language in the first century).

Do you think Luke used the same word in Acts 2:38 (that was translated "remission" in the KJV) as Paul used in Romans 3:25 (that was translated "remission" in the KJV)?

[SDG]

Originally Posted by mizpeh

Do you have a scripture that states sins are remitted when one receives the Holy Ghost? or when one believes in the gospel?

If you believe as Daniel does, that faith alone in Christ alone saves you, then you must also believe that you receive the Spirit of Christ and remission of sins upon faith and that Acts 2:38 is extra stuff we do after we are saved. Is that what you believe?

Extra stuff??? ... c'mon Mizpeh ... let's be intellectually honest.

[SDG]

Originally Posted by Chan

And you haven't shown that "remission" is the word Luke used in Acts 2:38 (particularly since English didn't even exist as a language in the first century).

Do you think Luke used the same word in Acts 2:38 (that was translated "remission" in the KJV) as Paul used in Romans 3:25 (that was translated "remission" in the KJV)?

He can't use the word remission as translated by the KJV ... because with exception of one time in the NT [not Acts 2:38]... aphesis is used synonymously for forgiveness and remission ... forgiveness is remisssion ... remission is forgiveness ... but some would want remission to mean "washed away"