I was wondering where we get the definition for “grace” as “unmerited favor”?
The Greek never defines "grace" as anything more than "graciousness". It comes from a root word meaning, “full of cheer”.
I don’t see unmerited or undeserving in the Bible. I don’t see that we are unworthy, unless we are not following in obedience (continuing in the faith) after Christ.
The only time I see someone following after Christ while saying they were “not” worthy are the passages by John in reference to, “whose shoe I am not worthy to unfasten” in the Gospels. Yet, here, the word is meaning, “to arrive; competent (as not coming into season)”.
The underlying teaching of “unmerited favor” seems rather negative. It’s as though we view God as offering us salvation, gifts and eternal life with the mindset that even though He has given, we aren’t really worth it.
I looked up “unmerited favor” on line and this is what I pulled up:
I was wondering where we get the definition for “grace” as “unmerited favor”?
The Greek never defines "grace" as anything more than "graciousness". It comes from a root word meaning, “full of cheer”.
I don’t see unmerited or undeserving in the Bible. I don’t see that we are unworthy, unless we are not following in obedience (continuing in the faith) after Christ.
The only time I see someone following after Christ while saying they were “not” worthy are the passages by John in reference to, “whose shoe I am not worthy to unfasten” in the Gospels. Yet, here, the word is meaning, “to arrive; competent (as not coming into season)”.
The underlying teaching of “unmerited favor” seems rather negative. It’s as though we view God as offering us salvation, gifts and eternal life with the mindset that even though He has given, we aren’t really worth it.
I looked up “unmerited favor” on line and this is what I pulled up:
All I can read is “graciousness”. I don’t see anything negative here, nor do I read these passages as though I deserve nothing from God.
So, where did this definition, “unmerited favor”, come from?
Can you answer the question as to where the term "unmerited favor" came into play? As I stated, the Greek doesn't have that in the definition.
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om 11:6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works; otherwise grace would no longer be grace.
2Ti 1:9 who saved us and called us to a holy calling, not because of our works but because of his own purpose and grace, which he gave us in Christ Jesus before the ages began
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Words are defined not by dictionaries only but by context. All Strongs does is list how the KJV translators translated a word, not why.
cháris; gen. cháritos, fem. noun from chaírō (G5463), to rejoice. Grace, particularly that which causes joy, pleasure, gratification, favor, acceptance, for a kindness granted or desired, a benefit, thanks, gratitude.
Thank you for taking the time to respond. I would prefer to have the words defined and then flesh it out with all of the corresponding scriptures than I would to read someone's opinion on what these words are meaning in the context.
Of course, there is a lot that is correct by Zodhiates and others, which I have referenced myself as being in agreement. Yet, I would rather start out with how the word is translated, and not the why.
I don't have any more time to respond today, just wanted to thank you for your input and will, again, re-read your lengthy post.
Of course, I am not against the use of "unmerited favor". MTD has a very good explanation here.
My only thought is that I had ALWAYS been taught that the accurate definition of grace was "unmerited favor" and the actual meaning doesn't allude to that idea at all.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple
I can tell you the answer.
The Biblical doctrine of unmerited favor is far from what is commonly taught. There really is a sense in which "unmerited favor" is true.
Here is the best example.
9:9 For this is a word of promise, “At the appointed time I will come, and Sarah will have a son.”* 9:10 Not only so, but Rebecca also conceived by one, by our father Isaac. 9:11 For being not yet born, neither having done anything good or bad, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him who calls, 9:12 it was said to her, “The elder will serve the younger.”* 9:13 Even as it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”* Rom. 9:9-13
Jacob had unmerited favor. Unmerited because it was given him NOT on the basis of anything he had done. He had not yet been born when it was given him. It was purely based on what God wanted to use him for.
That is the true doctrine of unmerited favor. All that the Lord has ordained to salvation have unmerited favor in that sense. God does not choose to save anyone based on their personal merit.
I'm probably out of my depth here, but it occurs to me that the idea of "unmerited favor" might have come about because the grace of God is given, for lack of a better term, outside of merit.
God blesses, shows favor, gives graciously and with kindness (salvation through the death of Jesus)....and he does that to all regardless of merit, i.e. his grace was available to both Hitler and the Apostle John, regardless of their actions for good or for evil. So if it is available to all, it can not be argued that it's is contingent on merit.
So I think I can see how it began to be defined that way, even though, I agree, the original definition doesn't use or imply "unmerited".
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Thank you for taking the time to respond. I would prefer to have the words defined and then flesh it out with all of the corresponding scriptures than I would to read someone's opinion on what these words are meaning in the context.
Of course, there is a lot that is correct by Zodhiates and others, which I have referenced myself as being in agreement. Yet, I would rather start out with how the word is translated, and not the why.
I don't have any more time to respond today, just wanted to thank you for your input and will, again, re-read your lengthy post.
Of course, I am not against the use of "unmerited favor". MTD has a very good explanation here.
My only thought is that I had ALWAYS been taught that the accurate definition of grace was "unmerited favor" and the actual meaning doesn't allude to that idea at all.
The Greek word is translated many ways (as my quote shows) and then in context is explained as referring to the favor without works we receive from God (as my quote shows)
Strongs does not show you were it's translated. It just shows HOW it was translated in the KJV.. That does not define the word. It shows how it was translated in the KJV
The Biblical doctrine of unmerited favor is far from what is commonly taught. There really is a sense in which "unmerited favor" is true.
Here is the best example.
9:9 For this is a word of promise, “At the appointed time I will come, and Sarah will have a son.”* 9:10 Not only so, but Rebecca also conceived by one, by our father Isaac. 9:11 For being not yet born, neither having done anything good or bad, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him who calls, 9:12 it was said to her, “The elder will serve the younger.”* 9:13 Even as it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”* Rom. 9:9-13
Jacob had unmerited favor. Unmerited because it was given him NOT on the basis of anything he had done. He had not yet been born when it was given him. It was purely based on what God wanted to use him for.
That is the true doctrine of unmerited favor. All that the Lord has ordained to salvation have unmerited favor in that sense. God does not choose to save anyone based on their personal merit.
Now the way its commonly taught is that we can keep on sinning after we have been saved and its ok. We wont ever lose our salvation because its based on unmerited favor.
See the difference?
I look at it like this. Taking the whole counsel of God. Some are predestined to be saved. Nothing from their side about it. It was settled before the world was. God chose that he would draw them to Christ.
And yet AFTERWARDS, when they have become a new creation by giving them his Spirit they are THEN held accountable to doing his will.
So then they can MERIT his favor by actions they do or don't do.
Here is an example of how a Christian CAN merit grace.
5:5 Likewise, you younger ones, be subject to the elder. Yes, all of you clothe yourselves with humility, to subject yourselves to one another; for “God resists the proud, but gives grace to the humble.”* 5:6 Humble yourselves therefore under the mighty hand of God, that he may exalt you in due time. 1 Peter 5:5-6
So a Christian CAN DO THINGS that will cause God to grant him favor.
IMO the part about "unmerited" favor is our choosing before the world was. We had no part in it.
It is generally taught that once saved always saved because God loves you unconditionally. Sins you commit are already under the blood because he loves you not because you merit it but just because God is merciful and kind.
So the true unmerited favor stemming from the doctrine of predestination is rejected across the board.
A distortion, that God loves without condition is then embraced and called "unmerited favor".
Hybrid Mode
