The Resolution of Matthew 28:18 and Acts 2:38

The Resolution of Matthew 28:18 and Acts 2:38

In an effort to do that which is pleasing to God in a spirit of love for Him, as we come to the act of water baptism we are faced with a decision about which formula or words we would have spoken over us during the ceremony. Someone giving only casual thought to this, but with a heart perfectly willing to obey God, might just go to their local fellowship, and whatever the preacher says during the ceremony would suffice for them. But as we closely study God's word we find that there is great treasure to be found in paying attention to detail.

Just as an example think of the matter of Noah's attention to detail when considering the specifications given him by God for the construction of the Ark. This vessel would prove to be the salvation of himself, the seven other men and women onboard, and all the animals through which life on earth would continue. If Noah had skipped the addition of the pitch covering of the Ark would it have had a successful journey? There was a specific reason for each specification of the construction of the Ark that God gave to Noah.
The Biblical Method Of Water Baptism

In the Bible's presentation of water baptism as practiced by the Church born or empowered on the Day of Pentecost, we see that upon each occasion when new believers were baptised, they did so "...in the name of Jesus".

Acts 2:38, Acts 8:16, Acts 10:48, Acts 19:5

It is critically important that you read these accounts in the context of the chapters in which they are written. This gives the Holy Spirit opportunity to reveal truth to you, giving you understanding as opposed to mere facts. Please take the necessary time required to do this. And may God bless your reading of His word!
The Question Raised About Matthew 28:19

After determining this fact that the appointed Apostles of Christ baptized new believers in Jesus's name a question comes to the minds of many about today's tradition of Churches baptizing "...in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost." They begin to think on the scripture Matthew 28:19 which reads;
Matthew 28:19
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: (KJV)
They begin to see a difficulty in reconciling this scripture with the ones we just saw in the book of Acts, with Acts 2:38 being the precedent setting verse of Scripture of water baptizing "...in the name of Jesus Christ". To add to this question, they are faced with the unfortunate position expressed to them by pastors or other ministers of the gospel who choose to baptize "...in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" who make the error of pitting God's word against itself as they seek Biblical justification for what they are doing.

Such pastors say to those who point out that the Apostle's baptized only "...in the name of Jesus Christ", that Matthew 28:19 is the "correct" method because it was spoken by the Lord Himself. The awful mistake that is committed by pitting God's word against itself, is that it implies the following-
"Matthew 28:19 is the `right' method."
Implication: Acts 2:38 is wrong. This would imply that there is an error in God's word. This would also imply that there is contradiction in God's word.
"The Lord Jesus spoke Matthew 28:19 therefore that method must be right."
Implication: The Apostles, (namely Peter) was in error when he spoke Acts 2:38. That there is a strife or contradiction between the words of Jesus, verses the words of the Apostles.
As we read these implications above we instantly see the error of that thought pattern. It is impossible that God's word could be in error. It is equally impossible that the inspired words of the chosen Apostles of Christ would be in opposition to His own teaching. Why is this an impossibility you ask? The answer is, because of the presence of the Holy Ghost in the writers of the New Testament.
The Word Of God Given By The Holy Spirit Is Perfect

What those who declare Peter's inspired words written in Acts 2:38 to be inferior to those of Christ's in Matthew 28:19 forget, is the awesome event that had just happened to Peter the very day he spoke them! Read again, dear friend from the beginning of Acts chapter two, and see the fulfillment of the promise Christ made just prior to His ascension in Acts chapter one;
Acts 1:8
But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth. (KJV)

This power of the Holy Ghost to be witnesses of the Gospel, was Messiah's promise to the disciples as He stood with them atop Mount Olivet just prior to His ascension. And this promise was fulfilled as is recorded at the beginning of Acts chapter two! The Holy Ghost (who is God) descended upon the 120 in the upper room and all were baptized in the power of the Holy Spirit of God, Hallelujah! Understand then that when Peter lifted up his hand and spoke on that day to those assembled before him at Jerusalem, that he was not speaking in his own power -- no! Peter was baptized and overflowing in the power of the Holy Ghost, and it was the words God *Himself had given Peter to speak that day which he uttered.

Also, remember what Jesus taught His disciples earlier when He spoke of the purpose of the soon coming Holy Spirit in their lives upon His return to Heaven-
John 14:26
But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. (KJV)

So you see, it is impossible that there could be contradiction between the words of Christ (Matthew 28:19) and those of Peter (Acts 2:38) because it is by *one Spirit of God that both were given. The same may be said of the Apostle John, whom the Spirit overcame on the Lord's Day (Revelation 1:10) as he wrote the words of the Book of Revelation. The same is true for every writer of the New Testament, and it is impossible that one would be contrary to another as is taught by those who would pit Matthew 28:19 against Acts 2:38.
The Consistancy Of The Gospels

Therefore in seeking an understanding of this deeper meaning of the practice of the Apostles in water baptizing "in the name of Jesus Christ", we begin to look for a greater meaning to be revealed from a comprehensive look at all of God's word surrounding the matter. We realize that Peter, Paul and all the Apostles who baptized were doing so under the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit, and could not have been in error. We see this confirmed many times in the book of Acts, and sealed by this scripture from Colossians;
Colossians 3:17
And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him. (KJV)

Taking a close look at Matthew 28:19 we begin to see the treasure and monumental implications of Christ's words. We begin to see His awesome divinity revealed to us, and the awesome nature of One God declared.
Matthew 28:19
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: (KJV)
One of the first things noticed upon a closer look is that the word "name" is singular, not plural. What is that name? Father is not a name, is it? No, it is a position or title of ancestry. Son is not a name, is it? No it is the same relative assignment of position or title. Holy Ghost is not a name is it? No, it is the Spirit of God. Where in scripture then, can we find the absolute and unquestionable name in which we may confidently act by word or deed as taught by Colossians 3:17? We find His name in Acts 4:10 through 12-
Acts 4:10-12
10 Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. 11 This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner.

12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
Friend, Jesus is the name. And this is exactly what the Apostle Peter realized as he was baptized in the Holy Ghost in Acts chapter 2, and proclaimed this truth in the instruction he gave concerning water baptism. It came directly from the Spirit of God who spoke through him that day.-
Acts 2:38
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized, every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Peter realized that Jesus Christ was "...the Word made flesh" (John 1:14), and that He was very God. Peter knew that Jesus was Emmanuel, or "God with us" (Matthew 1:23). He realized that "...in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9). Not 1/3- not part- but all the Godhead. This is an awesome, mind boggling truth to comprehend. The theme of the Bible is that there is one God and that the Lord Jesus is "the way" (John 14:6), and that the one God has been revealed to us in Jesus of Nazareth to accomplish our salvation (Acts 4:12).

This unity of the Godhead, is revealed in Matthew 28:19 and it is fulfilled in Acts 2:38. There is nothing contrary between the two but a perfect harmony as that latter fulfills the former. The proper name to be baptised in is that of the Lord Jesus Christ, and I highly recommend this method to you, in honor and love for Him. Make sure you insist on the use of His name in your water baptism ceremony, on that wonderful day when you proclaim your faith to the world by doing so. And God bless you!

God bless
Sister Phyllis

Phyllis, I'd wish to correct you in a few areas. Firstly, that the exact wordings, and even the Greek prepositions differ widely between the so called baptismal proof texts found at Acts 2, 8, 10, and 19 is obviously devastating to your position. In Acts 2 we read “in (epi) the name Jesus Christ,” at Acts 8 and 19 “in (eis) the name Lord Jesus,” and lastly at Acts 10 where we read “in (ev) the name Lord.” If a baptismal formula were really being given here, then it would not differ so widely between its various usages in Acts 2, 8, 10 and 19.

Secondly, I'd say that the only sensible explanation, is that the word “name” (onoma) means “authority,” as in “stop in the name of the law,” and that this is how Luke is using the term “onoma.” Notice that “name” (onoma) is used this way by Luke in Acts 4:7, where it is juxtaposed with the word “power.”

Thirdly the reference to the Holy Spirit in Acts 19:2-3, further confirms Matthew 28:19 as baptism being upon the authority of the one God who is not simply Jesus, but is Father and Son and Holy Spirit. Paul meets certain disciples of John, and asks if they received the Holy Spirit since they believed. When they reply that they don't know who the Holy Spirit is (Acts 19:2), Paul then immediately asks how then were you baptised (verse 3). He did this because he knew that the words Holy Spirit, referred to Matthew 28:19. So if “Jesus Christ” is the proper baptismal formula, then Paul's question “into what then were you baptised?” Does not make any sense. Because it would be a complete change of subject from his question, onto these Jewish disciples in the previous verse.

Fourthly, to baptise upon the name of the “Father, Son and Holy Spirit” (Matthew 28:19), is to baptise according to Acts 2:38, because both these passages imply the authority for baptism.

Fifthly, I really don't beleive that you cannot understand the baptismal formula, apart from a study of the Aaronic blessing formula in Numbers 6. This specific blessing was used by the priests constantly in the Old Testament Scripture, but when it is it is simply referred to in a shortened summary form. This is why we read of Levi blessing the people “in his name” (Deuteronomy 10:8), and the priests being commanded “to bless in the name of the LORD,” (Deuteronomy 21:50) or “to give a blessing in his name forever.” (1st Chronicles 23:13). God does not need to slavishly repeat the Aaronic blessing word for word, every time that it was used, and so this shortened form “in his name” or “in the name of the Lord” refers back to the Numbers 6 formula. So you can see that your baptismal passages in Acts, mirror the way that the Aaronic blessing formula was used.

Finally, my main problem with your position Phyllis, is not that I disagree with it, but that the implications are that Trinitarians like myself are not saved (and so too are Luther, Wesley and Jonathan Edwards in hell). But in my opinion our love towards God, so our hearts count more than religious works, and so I’m certain that God will recognise sprinkling, immersion or pouring, and even if no formula or an incorrect formula of words is used. However you can’t say this of Trinitarians, and so you must claim that we’re lost and going to hell, which is why you have to go on and on about baptism all the time, and getting the mode and formula just right. So it isn’t your constant insistence upon mode of baptism which I find so objectionable, it is rather the ‘hard hearted dogmatism’ which claims that God will ........ a man to hell on a mere technicality. Love is not enough, and neither is the cross or even the reception of the Holy Spirit. But our works must be exactly right in order to get us into heaven, because our relationship with God starts and is even based upon our own deeds; namely correct baptism and speaking in tongues. So the God of Oneness only loves us through our works for him, yet my Bible says that God loves and justifies the ungodly, and not the Godly: see Romans 4:5.

Hello Iron Bladder

I would like to add a little about my testimony and right off I want to tell you that you are loved by Jesus and all of us here. We care so much about your soul

I grew up in a Baptist home where my father was a baptist deacon for years and I knew no other way but that tradition. I was even sent to a baptist bible school run by the Baptist Convention in Canada It was a private school where I studied academics and bible subjects I also took many seminary courses from trinity seminaries in my search to fulfill a longing in my soul over the years


I had to go to chruch all my life growing up and I prayed the sinners prayer and joined the chruch was baptised according to Matt 29:19 I really thougth i was saved but as I got older I felt a void in my life that no matter what I did I could not fill. I was active in all phases of the church life and as time went on joined another trinity chruch . Still I was not satisfied in my soul so I began to search the scriptures myself and the Holy Spirit led me to the online Arms around the World Ministry of Norwich Tabernacle in Norwich ct usa I am from Canada .

Before all that I had become a addict of about 27 years , landed in prison as a result of crimes commited as an addict. As I began to listen to the chruch services coming from bro Rutledges chruch I began to hear a salvation plan I had never heard before . I read acts 2:38, 39 over and over again and many other verses of scripture that backed those verses up all through the bible and the Lord opened up to me by revelation of the Holy Ghost that I was not saved unless I obeyed all of what those verse meant

I had a few years back got rebaptised in Jesus name by a an apostolic pastor here in Canada but I did not really understand what it meant and I did it as I did not want to miss going to heaven and did not know at that time who was right or wrong

To make this a bit short I eventually went to NORWICH CT and spent about 6 months there and I learned under anointed pastors and sisters and brothers what was needed to really be saved and wow it was like a light bulb switched on in my head and it became so clear that what I had been taught all my life was in error

I came home and then went back there for another trip and I have never regretted doing that and I want to add that when I serve the Lord be it in prayer minsitry which God has called me to do and also in some teaching I do it not because I have to as works I do it out of my love for my Lord Jesus .No one has told me I have to do good works to make it to heaven but the Jesus in me the Holy Ghost in me shows me what I should do or not do and I obey .

My friend I love all those in the other demoninations and churches I feel compassion for them for they are wonderful people but just dont know like you that there is one plan of salvation in the word of God and that is to believe that Jesus is God , be baptised in His name which is Jesus , and be filled iwth the HolyGhost and then to live a holy life before Him and others .

I will add some scriptures in part 2 of my reply to you ok

sister phyllis

S JESUS GOD?
JESUS IS GOD

"For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9).

The fact that Jesus is God is as firmly established in Scripture as the fact that God is one. The Bible teaches that Jesus is fully God and fully man.

The Old Testament Testifies That Jesus Is God

1. Isaiah 9:6 is one of the most powerful proofs that Jesus is God: "For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father The Prince of Peace." The terms child and son refer to the Incarnation or manifestation of "The mighty God" and "The everlasting Father."

2. Isaiah prophesied that the Messiah would be called Immanuel, that is, God with us (Isaiah 7:14 Matthew 1:22-23).

3. Isaiah described the Messiah as both a branch out of Jesse (the father of David) and as the root of Jesse (Isaiah 11:1, 10; see also Revelation 22:16). According to the flesh He was a descendant (branch) of Jesse and David, but according to His Spirit He was their Creator and source of life (root). Jesus used this concept to confound the Pharisees when He quoted Psalm 110:1 and asked, in essence, "How could David call the Messiah Lord when the Messiah was to be the son (descendant) of David?" (Matthew 22:41-46).

4. Isaiah 35:4-6 shows that Jesus is God: "Behold, your God… he will come and save you." This passage goes on to say that when God comes the eyes of the blind would be opened, the ears of the deaf would be unstopped, the lame would leap, and the tongue of the dumb would speak. Jesus applied this passage of Scripture to Himself (Luke 7:22) and, of course, His ministry did produce all of these things.

5. Isaiah 40:3 declares that one would cry in the wilderness, "Prepare ye the way of the LORD, make straight in the desert a highway for our God." John the Baptist fulfilled this prophecy when he prepared the way for Jesus (Matthew 3:3); so Jesus is the LORD (Jehovah) and our God.

6. Micah 5:2 proves that the Messiah is God. "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah… out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel, whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."

Thus the Old Testament clearly states that the Messiah and Savior to come would be God Himself.

The New Testament Proclaims That Jesus is God

1. According to Acts 20:28, the church was purchased with God's own blood, namely the blood of Jesus.

3. Paul described Jesus as "the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ"

4. Peter described Him as "God and our Saviour Jesus Christ" (II Peter 1:1;

5. Our bodies are the temples of God (I Corinthians 3:16-17), yet we know Christ dwells in our hearts (Ephesians 3:17).

6. The Book of Colossians strongly emphasizes the deity of Christ. "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9; see also 1:19).

According to these verses of Scripture, Jesus is not just a part of God, but all of God is resident in Him. If there were several persons in the Godhead, according to Colossians 2:9 they would all be resident in the bodily form of Jesus. We are complete in Him (Colossians 2:10). Whatever we need from God we can find in Jesus Christ alone.

We conclude that the New Testament testifies to the full deity of Jesus Christ.

God Was Manifest in the Flesh as Jesus

The statement that Jesus is God necessarily implies that God took on human flesh. This is in fact what the Bible says.

1. "God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory" (I Timothy 3:16; see verse 15 for further confirmation that God is the subject of verse 16). God was manifest (made visible) in flesh; God was justified (shown to be right) in the Spirit; God was seen of angels; God was believed on in the world; and God was received up into glory. How and when did all of this happen? In Jesus Christ.

2. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God… And the Word was made flesh…" (John 1:1, 14). Literally, the Word (God) was tabernacled or tented in flesh. When did God tabernacle or robe Himself in flesh? In Jesus Christ. Both verses of Scripture prove that Jesus is God - that He is God manifest (revealed, made known, made evident, displayed, shown) in flesh.
God is a Spirit without flesh and blood and invisible to man. In order to make Himself visible to man and in order to shed innocent blood for our sins, He had to put on flesh.

Jesus is not another God or a part of God, but He is the God of the Old Testament robed in flesh. He is the Father; He is Jehovah who came in flesh to bridge the gap between man and God that man's sin had created. He put on flesh as a man puts on a coat.
Many verses of Scripture declare Jesus Christ to be the God of the Old Testament robed in flesh for the purpose of self-revelation and reconciliation.

3. "To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself" (II Corinthians 5:19).

4. "No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [spoken, revealed] him" (John 1:18).

5. "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son… the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person…" (Hebrew 1:1-3).

6. Jesus is "the image of the invisible God" (Colossians 1:15; II Corinthians 4:4).

7. He is God veiled in flesh (Hebrews 10:20). As Abraham prophesied, probably without understanding the full meaning of his own words, "God will provide himself a lamb" (Genesis 22:8). God indeed provided a body for Himself: "Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me" (Hebrews 10:5).

8. Jesus was the builder of the house (God the Father and Creator) and also a son over his own house (Hebrews 3:3-6).

9. He came to His own creation and to His own chosen people but they did not recognize Him or receive Him (John 1:10-11).


sister phyllis

The Word

John 1 beautifully teaches the concept of God manifest in flesh. In the beginning was the Word (Greek, Logos). The Word was not a separate person or a separate god any more than a man's word is a separate person from him. Rather the Word was the thought, plan, or mind of God. The Word was with God in the beginning and actually was God Himself (John 1:1). The Incarnation existed in the mind of God before the world began. Indeed, in the mind of God the Lamb was slain before the foundation of the world (I Peter 1:19-20; Revelation 13:8).

In Greek usage, logos can mean the _expression or plan as it exists in the mind of the proclaimer - as a play in the mind of a playwright - or it can mean the thought as uttered or otherwise physically expressed - as a play that is enacted on stage. John 1 says the Logos existed in the mind of God from the beginning of time. When the fulness of time was come, God put that plan in action. He put flesh on that plan in the form of the man Jesus Christ. The Logos is God expressed. As John Miller says, the Logos is "God uttering Himself."

This thought is further brought out by verse 14, which says the incarnated Word had the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, and by verse 18, which says that the Son has declared the Father.


Jesus Was God From the Beginning Of His Human Life

God was manifest in the flesh through Jesus Christ, but at what point in His life did God indwell the Son? The Bible unequivocally declares that the fulness of God was in Jesus from the moment when Jesus' human life began.

1. Matthew 1:23 says, "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us." He was "God with us" even at his birth.

2. The angels worshiped Him at His birth (Hebrews 1:6), Simeon recognized the infant as the Christ (Luke 2:26), Anna saw the babe as the redeemer of Israel (Luke 2:38), and the wise men worshiped the young child (Matthew 2:11).

3. Micah 5:2 ascribed deity to the Messiah at His birth in Bethlehem, not just after His life in Nazareth or His baptism in Jordan.


4. Luke 1:35 explains why Jesus was God at the beginning of His human life. The angel told Mary, "The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God." Jesus was born of a virgin, His conception being effected by the Holy Ghost. Because of this ("therefore"), He was the Son of God. In other words, Jesus is the Son of God because God, and not a man, caused His conception. God was literally His Father. "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son…" (John 3:16). To beget means to father, sire, procreate, or cause. Jesus was begotten by God in the womb of the virgin Mary.


Isaiah 7:14 also links the virgin conception with the recognition that the Son thus born would be God. In other words, at the moment of conception, God placed His divine nature in the seed of the woman. The child to be born received its life and the fatherly side of its nature from God at this time. From the mother's side it received the human nature of Mary; from the father's side (God, not Joseph) it received the nature of God. Jesus obtained His divine nature through the conception process; He did not become divine by some later act of God. The virgin birth of Jesus establishes His deity.


Some believe that Jesus received the fulness of God at some later time in His life, such as at His baptism. However, in light of the virgin birth and Luke 1:35 this cannot be so. Jesus received His nature of deity as well as the nature of humanity at conception. The descent of the Holy Ghost like a dove at the baptism of Jesus was not a baptism of the Holy Ghost; Jesus already had all the fulness of God within Him (Colossians 2:9). Rather, His baptism, among other things, occurred as a symbolic anointing for the beginning of His earthly ministry and as a confirmation to John the Baptist of His deity (John 1:32-34).


Jesus bless you
sister phyllis

The Mystery of Godliness

The fact that God became flesh is one of the most wonderful and yet one of the most incomprehensible things about God. "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh…" (I Timothy 3:16). Jesus is like no other man that ever has been or will be. He has two natures; He is fully God and fully man.

Most problems in people's minds concerning the Godhead come from this great mystery. They cannot understand the dual nature of Christ and cannot correctly separate his two roles. They cannot comprehend how God could take on the form of a baby and live among men.
It is true that we cannot comprehend fully how the miraculous conception - the union of God and man - took place in the womb of Mary, but we can accept it by faith. In fact, if we do not believe that Jesus is come in the flesh we have an antichrist spirit (II John 7), but if we do accept this doctrine of Christ we will have both the Father and the Son (II John 9). Both Father and Son are revealed in Christ (John 10:30; 14:6-11).



There never has been a mystery as to "persons" in the Godhead. The Bible clearly states that there is only one God, and this is easy for all to understand. The only mystery about the Godhead is how God could come in flesh, how Jesus could be both God and man. But the truth of this mystery has been revealed to those who will believe. The mystery of Jesus Christ has been kept secret since the world began, but was revealed in the New Testament age (Romans 16:25-26; Colossians 1:25-27). A mystery in the New Testament is simply a plan of God that was not understood in the Old Testament but which has been made known to us. We "may understand… the mystery of Christ which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit" (Ephesians 3:4-5).

We can know the mystery of God and the Father, which is Christ In fact, Paul explained this mystery by saying that in Jesus Christ dwells all the wisdom, knowledge, and fulness of God (Colossians 2:3

9). The mystery of God has been revealed to us by God's Spirit (I
Corinthians 2:7-10). This revelation comes to us through God's Word, which is illuminated by the Holy Spirit (I Corinthians 2:7-10). The light of Christ, who is the image of God, has shined in our hearts (II Corinthians 4:3-4). There is therefore no biblical mystery about the Godhead and certainly no mystery about the number of persons in the Godhead. The only mystery is Christ, and He has been revealed to us! The mystery of God and the mystery of Christ converge in the Incarnation. It is simply that the one God of Israel came to the earth in flesh. This mystery has been revealed and God's Word declares that it has been made known to us today.
Jesus is the Father

If there is only one God and that God is the Father (Malachi 2:10), and if Jesus is God, then it logically follows that Jesus is the Father. For those who somehow think that Jesus can be God and still not be the Father, we will offer additional biblical proof that Jesus is the Father. This will serve as more evidence that Jesus is God.

Actually two verses of Scripture are sufficient to prove this point.

1. Isaiah 9:6 calls the Son the everlasting Father. Jesus is the Son prophesied about and there is only one Father (Malachi 2:10; Ephesians 4:6), so Jesus must be God the Father.

2. Colossians 2:9 proclaims that all the fulness of the Godhead dwells in Jesus. The Godhead includes the role of Father, so the Father must dwell in Jesus.

3. In addition to these two verses, Jesus Himself taught that He was the Father. Once, when Jesus was talking about the Father, the Pharisees asked, "Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also" (John 8:19). Jesus went on to say, "I said therefore unto you, if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins" (John 8:24).



4. In another place Jesus said, "I and my Father are one" (John 10:30). Some try to say that He was one with the Father much as a husband and wife are one or as two men can be one in agreement. This interpretation attempts to weaken the force of the assertion Jesus made. However, other verses fully support that Jesus was not only the Son in His humanity but also the Father in His deity.

5. For example, Jesus stated in John 12:45, "And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me." In other words, if a person sees Jesus as to His deity, he sees the Father.

6. In John 14:7 Jesus told His disciples, "If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him." Upon hearing this statement, Philip requested, "Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us" (John 14:8). In other words, he asked that Jesus show them the Father and then they would be satisfied. Jesus' answer was, "Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father? Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake" (John 14:9-11). This statement goes far beyond a relationship of agreement; it can be viewed as nothing less that the claim of Christ to be the Father manifested in flesh. Like many people today, Philip had not comprehended that the Father is an invisible Spirit and that the only way a person could ever see Him would be through the person of Jesus Christ.


7. Jesus said, "The Father is in me, and I in him" (John 10:38).

8. Jesus promised to be the Father of all overcomers (Revelation 21:6-

We conclude that Jesus must be the One on the throne in Revelation 4.
Revelation 22:3-4 speaks of the throne of God and of the Lamb. These verses speak of one throne, one face, and one name. Therefore, God and the Lamb must be one Being who has one face and one name and who sits on one throne. The only person who is both God and the Lamb is Jesus Christ. In short, the Book of Revelation tells us that when we get to heaven we will see Jesus alone on the throne. Jesus is the only visible manifestation of God we will ever see in heaven.


Jesus is the one God. There is no better way to sum it all up than to say with the inspired Apostle Paul, "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him" (Colossians 2:9-10).

My friend the Word of God speaks for its self much better than anything I could ever say Please jsut ask the Holy Spirit to reveal to you what these scriptures are saying

Jesus bless you
sister phyllis

Originally Posted by Sister Phyllis

S JESUS GOD?
JESUS IS GOD

"For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9).

sister phyllis

Phyllis, I think that you might have here ignored the words “bodily” (KJV), or ‘in a bodily form’ in some other Bible versions. Because this verse is actually saying that Christ (verse 8), is not simply himself God (YHWH), for Paul naturally takes it for granted that his readers already understand that obvious fact. But rather Paul is here stating that Christ is specifically God (YHWH), but in a bodily form or presence upon this earth.

Secondly: please explain this passage, as the flesh or humanity of Jesus being the Son of God, who is then indwelt by the deity of Jesus, which they’ll explain as the Father. So the pronoun ‘him,’ is explained as the flesh of Jesus, which is then indwelt by the deity, or God-part (Spirit) of Jesus. Thus they effectively have two Jesus’ in this verse, Jesus the God and also Jesus the man, who is indwelt by God the God, which thereby makes Jesus the man God incarnate.

Thirdly: The word "Godhead," or ‘deity’ in the Greek, is now taken to be something totally separate from the "Him" who is mentioned in this verse. This pronoun ‘Him’ is then often likened to a bottle in Oneness churches, and the "Godhead" (or deity), which is the Spirit of God, is then likened milk. So this verse is now explained as the Son (the flesh or non-Deity) having the Father who is also called the Holy Spirit (the deity) actually inside of his human body. In the same way that milk is actually contained inside a milk bottle, whilst at the same time, the milk and the bottle each remain distinct from each other. But the problem which we now encounter is that this verse has now been twisted completely around, and used to wrongly affirm that the Son, who is the "Him" speaker of in the third word of this verse is NOT GOD (YHWH). He is in Oneness theology merely a human body, a mere container in whom the true God then indwells, as milk infills a milk bottle.

So to conclude, when Oneness people such as Phyllis use this verse, remember that they actually regard the "Him" who is the Son in this verse, as something other the deity (YHWH), even though they’ll often refer to ‘him’ as God or as deity. Oneness folk will often talk about the “almighty God in Christ.” But this almighty God is actually the Father, to whom they ascribe full deity to alone. But to the Son of God, they claim that he is not actually the almighty God, but as he merely has the almighty God living inside of him, he is really a man ‘empowered by God,’ even if he does not possess any divine attributes such as omnipotence, omnipresence and creatorship himself (as the Son).

However, as you can’t dwell inside of yourself, therefore the Father alone is regarded as deity in Oneness theology. The Son or Christ is not actually deity himself, but as he has the almighty God dwelling inside of him, (John 14:9-10). This allows us to refer to Christ as God, even if the ‘Son’ part of Christ in Oneness theology isn’t actually God himself, but is actually a man (the flesh) within whom the deity then resides.

Originally Posted by Sister Phyllis

Hello Iron Bladder

I would like to add a little about my testimony and right off I want to tell you that you are loved by Jesus and all of us here. We care so much about your soul

Testimony and stories arn't relevant to truth, no matter how sincerely put across. Please show me just one passage from the NT where anybody was baptised with a 'Jesus Christ' formula. If you read Scripture carefully, you'll discover that for instance when people were baptised at Acts 2:41 God deemed it unimportant to record which if any baptismal formula was used. Acts 2:38 isn't a baptismal verse, being dry (no water), it just commands baptism upon the authority of Christ and so at Acts 2:41, there is no record of which formula if any was used.

Hello Iron Bladder,

Sister Phyllis asked me to answer you.

Reading your writings reminds me of Moody Bible Institute classes in my home town, Baptist (Baptistic) Bible colleges, and Baptist seminaries. When I first moved away to attend a Baptist Bible college, we thought we had gone to heaven. Great times! Great friends! Great but wrong teachers! I wish I was back there now. All I had to do was study and play, and play and study. The third school was in Florida on a beach. Had to study and go to the beach, and go to the beach then study. Live was rough! I am pushing the truth!

I don't hold to a set group of words for a baptismal formula. I water baptize in the Name of Jesus for the washing away of sin. So, I think your use of Greek doesn't apply.

Is Martin Luther or John Wesley or Jonathan Edwards in hell or heaven? I don't know where they are. I hope God's grace and mercy kept them from hell. I do know that YOU are responsible for the truth, because you know the truth from these forums, so when you face Jesus you don't have any excuses.

My friend this is a grave concern of mine. I believe there are different degrees of suffering in hell; I think the proof text is in Revelation; haven't taken time to look it up. My point is you keep seeing the true plan of salvation over and over, and you are rejecting it. Does rejecting the gospel over and over cause a soul to receive a worse judgement at the Great White Throne Judgement?

"Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." John 3:5

As Apostolics, we have the clear teaching of Scripture; we want to do Jesus' will. Since the Lake of Fire is eternal, I want to follow Scripture, Word for Word. I don't want to be in the Lake of Fire.


I see the pharisees of Jesus' day as the Lutherans, Methodists, Congregationalist, etc. of our day.

The pharisees take Scripture and pervert it, so Jesus spoke against the traditions of men:
"But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men." Matthew 15:9




"Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. 22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? 23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." Matthew 7:21-23

http://www.freewebs.com/bibleteach/

My friend, be blessed!

In Jesus,
Brother Bruce

PS.
Friend, we all believe God's Word will not return void. It will do its work in your life. We all love you, and Jesus loves YOU!

PSS.
The first step is to receive the baptism of the Holy Spirit with the evidence of speaking in tongues.
Dr. Hobart Freeman's booklet would be of great help:
http://achristiancounselor.com/tongues.html

Dr. Freeman was a professor at Grace Theological Seminary. Most of his books and booklets are available on the internet for free downloading. He is not Apostolic. He was close. He did water baptize in the name of Jesus. He died as he was coming into more truth. We did not sit under his ministry. His wife is a real blessing. She called our Luke a miracle baby. To me, Joseph was more of a miracle baby. Both were born at home without a doctor or a mid-wife. Jesus is our great Physician!

[Trouvere]

If any name would have been enough then why did Johns converts have to be rebaptized?