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Old 10-09-2009, 10:01 PM
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When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

When studying Hebrew and Greek,and the scholars of these languages disagree how do we know what absolute truth is ?
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Old 10-09-2009, 10:05 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

We take the definiton that supports our doctrines and pitch the rest ;-)
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Old 10-09-2009, 10:07 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

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Originally Posted by freeatlast View Post
We take the definiton that supports our doctrines and pitch the rest ;-)
Yes we do,and how do we really find the truth wheter it suits our pet notions or not ?
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Old 10-09-2009, 10:09 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

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Originally Posted by freeatlast View Post
We take the definiton that supports our doctrines and pitch the rest ;-)
Heyyy, I was gonna say that!
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Old 10-09-2009, 10:19 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

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Heyyy, I was gonna say that!
No, you were going to say, "Many people just insert their own opinions like a kid sticking a fork into a wall socket..."

I knew that because I have a keyboard logger installed on your system, but I'm having problems with your Visa number. Can you PM that, the expiration date and the CVV code to me?

Please?
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Old 10-09-2009, 10:28 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

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No, you were going to say, "Many people just insert their own opinions like a kid sticking a fork into a wall socket..."

I knew that because I have a keyboard logger installed on your system, but I'm having problems with your Visa number. Can you PM that, the expiration date and the CVV code to me?

Please?
Oh, you can work out the bugs, can'tcha? Patience!
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Old 10-09-2009, 10:16 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

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Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson View Post
When studying Hebrew and Greek,and the scholars of these languages disagree how do we know what absolute truth is ?
Gimme an example.

One source of "disagreement" has been over time. Greek and Hebrew studies in the West all but died out after the fall of Rome. So as time went on, more and more was learned and "discovered" about these ancient languages. The KJV translators were notoriously lacking in their Hebrew abilities.

That's why they carried so many (not really that many, but more than a few) over from the "previous translations" which they had "diligently revised and compared."

In time, even more Hebrew and Greek works became more available - especially after the invention of the and spread of the printing press. Scholarship and understanding of these languages increased and continues to make more gains today.

And language (any language) is keyed rather intimately with the speaker's customs and his/her understanding of their world. Also, the use of colloquialisms and figures of speech will make any translation work more difficult and open up even more opportunities for disagreement.

Then, of course, you also have your ideologues who will tell you that a certain passage means whatever they want it to mean just because "that's what it means!"
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Old 10-09-2009, 10:21 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

Like for example EIS as in Acts.2:38 some stuff says it means because of,some stuff says it means in order to obtain.
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Old 10-09-2009, 11:31 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

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Originally Posted by Scott Hutchinson View Post
Like for example EIS as in Acts.2:38 some stuff says it means because of,some stuff says it means in order to obtain.
It actually means both - similar to the way we use the word "for" in English. The context should (hopefully) supply the distinctions.

In this case (Acts 2:38), however, it really is somewhat unclear. Sometimes we just have to be happy to live with a bit of uncertainty, especially if no important Bible doctrines are involved... uhm, yeah.

Remember, whatever it's intended meaning in Acts 2:38 - we have the identical grammar and even the identical issue of baptism and "the remission of sins" described in the same way in Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3.

We can use Bible to interpret Bible - in fact that's usually the safest way to go.

What did John the Baptist mean when he said "I preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins..." And why would John's meaning be any different than Peter's as recorded by Luke?
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Old 10-09-2009, 11:58 PM
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Re: When Scholars Disagree,How Do We Know ?

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Originally Posted by pelathais View Post
.
...
What did John the Baptist mean when he said "I preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins..." And why would John's meaning be any different than Peter's as recorded by Luke?
was John saying remission/forgiveness was through baptism or through repentance? Does the prepositional phrase "for the remission/forgiveness" apply to baptism or repentance?

Last edited by Sam; 10-09-2009 at 11:58 PM. Reason: correct typo
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