Luke wrote, quoting from the Authorized King James Version [
Hebrews 9:28 -
"So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation"]. Praxeas responded by quoting the same scriptural passage excerpted from the Revised Standard Version.
I believe it should be noted that the language of the RSV contains an addition to that which the KJV asserts, that is, the phrase
"not to deal with sin."
While the language of the KJV makes it quite clear there are those who are
"without sin" that look for Christ's second coming to the earth, they do so because they have been given an assurance that this event will bring to fruition their expectation of salvation. This, at its very essence, is precisely that which the language of the KJV is asserting! It does not, however, make mention of the fact that Christ must, indeed,
"deal with sin" at His coming for it is evident that this is something which He must do. No, not the sins of those who
"look for him," rather the sins of the descendants of Abraham who will be living upon the earth when this future momenteous event occurs.
In essence, the language of the KJV asserts that it is not the purpose of Christ's second advent to "deal" with the sins of His chosen people (i.e., the church), for this has already been accomplished through His sacrificial death at Calvary. Nevertheless, when taking into consideration other scriptural passages which reference the second coming of Christ then it could be said that chief among the necessity for His second visit to the earth is so that He can "deal" with the sins of those who, for almost 2,000 years, have rejected Him as their promised Messiah, that is, the natural descendants of Abraham, the nation of Israel.
For this reason the addition of the phrase
"not to deal with sin," as contained in the language of the RSV, must (IMHO) be construed as a corruption of the sacred "Oracles of God," for it represents an addition which is forbidden.
Hybrid Mode
