Quote:
Originally Posted by FlamingZword
In 1574 Szymon Budny (Simon Budnaeus) (1530-1593), Polish translator of the Bible (Biblia nieświeska), Simon was anti-trinitarian and he criticized Matthew 28:19 due to its Latinized wording. He argued that a Jewish scribe like Matthew could not have possible written such Europeanized wording and structure.
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Far too vague.
The first time I have ever hard of a passage in the New Testament criticized for "Europeanized wording and structure".
What specific words are Europeanized or Latinized?
What element of structure?
And was he arguing to remove the whole verse?
Very strange.