Quote:
Shag
Just to throw a little more in the mix.....in the following, who is considered the underlined "HE" that they did not know, Jesus or only the Father?, or both?
1 Jn. 3:1 Behold what manner of love the Father has bestowed on us, that we should be called children of God! Therefore the world does not know us, because it did not know Him. 2 Beloved, now we are children of God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we know that when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is. 3 And everyone who has this hope in Him purifies himself, just as He is pure.
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Thats it! When was it the world did not know the Father? Could it be when Yeshua was here on Earth?
Also consider this:
28: And now, little children, abide
in him; that, when
he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed
before him at his coming.
29: If ye know that
he is righteous, ye know that every one that doeth righteousness is
born of him.
1 John 2:28-29
Do we abide in Jesus? Is he the one that will appear? Is he righteous?
If you answered yes to these questions take note who you have been
born of in verse 29.
We are
BORN OF JESUS!
If we are
BORN OF HIM I take that as meaning he is the Father.
Could it be that Jesus being our Father is the
VERY SAME FATHER as in the very next verse?
1 Jn. 3:1 Behold what manner of love
the Father has bestowed on us, that we should be called children of God! Therefore the world does not know us, because it did not know Him.
If we were
BORN OF JESUS in the preceeding verse how could he not be the Father in this verse?