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Originally Posted by Chan
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Chan, I thought you would actually present some evidence beyond some marketing hype from the NIV publishers (who have to justify their 'new and better translation' in oder to make money off sales) and a collection of hyperlinks.
But to begin with, I would say your referencing the NIV footnote is a fallacious appeal to authority and a begging of the question. The fact the NIV publishers CLAIM that the Comma is 'not found in any pre-16th century Greek manuscripts' or that the Comma is only found in 'a few late manuscripts'.
First of all, WHO SAYS SO? The NIV? hahahahahahahaha (you get my drift).
WHAT manuscript evidence is there?
Secondly, what manuscripts do the NIV rely upon here? And do those manuscripts demonstrate superiority over others which the NIV rejected? And what was the basis of their detemrinations? And were those determinations consistent?
Thirdly, the entire argument of the NIV is an ARGUMENT FROM SILENCE. Enough said about that.
Now, as for the hyperlinks you provided, shall I just provide hyperlinks of my own to counter them?
Or shall we have a discussion, laying out the evidence for and gainst for the readers here?
I mean, if you aren't up to it, that's cool. Just let me know, and then I will simply post some hyperlinks, and we can be done with it, and the world will be a safer place, we having stemmed the evil tide of internet literacy...