Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1
Whatever the reason for Tamar's covering is, it wasn't done from a command of God. To quote this story does nothing to provide proof that God commands Christian women to veil. It is only an example of a cultural practise which comes from within Man, not God.
Where are the commands of God for the veil, shown from Ge to Paul? They aren't there. The evidence of the veil from the OT doesn't show proof that it comes from commands. A view of 1Co11 must be found which is in agreement with the evidence. The veil view needs to be modified to agree with the evidence.
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Brother,
My point has been made. Sorry if it was a bit vague.
We have two women in Genesis that veiled themselves. They are in the same time period. They married into the same family. One was considered to be a harlot. The other was Rebecca.
Notice though the difference in the reaction to these women wearing a veil. One has been suggested to have done so out of modesty and respect. The other was suggested to have done so as a disguise?
This is the challenge with trying to exegete this subject of the veil. Sincere people interpret it the way that they want to believe it. It is prime territory for conformational bias. Rebecca veiled out of modesty and respect. Tamar out of a need to remain anonymous.
I have my own idea. Maybe I’ll get into it. Probably not. Because I don’t see it being something that can be proven conclusively. And we seem to have plenty of hypotheticals.