"Paul bases arguments put forward in 1Co11 from the first chapters of Genesis. If that is his scriptural foundation then
it is logical to presume that commands similar to what are believed to come from 1Co11 would also be seen there."
I'm going to try this one more time, Don. The bolded part of your statement, which I quoted above, is the point that needs to be examined.
1. Why do you think "it is logical to presume that commands similar to what are believed to come from
1 Cor 11 would also be seen there"? What law of logic demands such a thing?
2. Do you believe that there are no commands of God to found in Scripture after Deuteronomy? If so, WHY?
3. Do you believe every command of God must be repeated at least twice, in two separate books, by two separate authors, in order to be valid? If so, WHY? Who says so?
4. Is it more logical to think that women ought to be covered, and men uncovered, when praying or prophesying, because of the reasons given by Paul in
1 Cor 11? Or rather because of some unknown unstated undefined "instinct" that you are hypothesizing is somehow involved?
5. Do you believe there was a uniformity of approved practice in the 1st century apostolic churches of God? Or do you rather believe different churches "did things differently" and the apostles were all cool with that?