Where does the Bible distinguish angels from another, non-human, class of beings called "sons of God"?
Re: the men of Sodom - there is no reason whatsoever to believe they knew the visitors were angelic beings. Sodomy is not miscegenation. Miscegenation is prohibited sexual relations between two distinct ethnic groups resulting in mixed-ethnic offspring. Gay "relations" are a separate issue because they are not reproduction which requires two complementary GENDERS.
The idea of heavenly beings lusting after human women and cohabiting with them is a common trope in pagan mythologies. And in Jewish mythologies. I think you are interpreting the Bible through the lens of mythology, rather than the other way around. Myths and legends are not the clear light by which we are to understand dark and obscure Biblical narratives. That approach is irrational for a Christian.
In Scripture, "sons of God" refer to humans - in fact, a specific class of humans, those in Covenant with Jehovah God. There is NO PASSAGE in which sons of God are CLEARLY non human. It is eisegesis to read "non human" into the Genesis account. Eisegesis imported from pagan mythology. Nobody would read
Gen 6 and conclude the sons of God are divine or semidivine nonhuman entities UNLESS they had a preconceived idea that THAT is what is going on.
So where does the idea originate from? Clearly not the Bible. Ergo...? The idea is pagan mythology.
Notes: I am sure someone will bring up Job. But before they do, let's consider the fact that Job is Wisdom literature and NOT historical narrative, that nowhere does the Book of Job identify who or what the sons of God are, and therefore the Book of Job cannot be used as a proof one way or the other.
Also, I am sure someone will mention a certain Psalm. Which I would love to discuss if/when it comes up.
