Quote:
Originally Posted by votivesoul
Exactly so. Thank you for proving my point. The Sons of God ARE NOT angels. They are an entirely different class of spirit beings (See my response to Amanah here, and the taxonomy therein).
That is the clear, that is, explicit point of the text. But the implicit point of the text is what accompanies marriage. The main point of God instituting marriage in Genesis, is so that the man and woman would no longer be two, but one flesh. The purpose of the oneness of flesh between Adam and Eve was to generate offspring ( Genesis 1:28 and Genesis 2:18-25).
Further, note the text in Jude:
Jude 1:7 (ESV),
The ESV phrasing "unnatural desire", or "strange flesh" in the KJV, comes from the Greek σαρκὸς ἑτέρας - sarkos heteras, from the Greek word for flesh, and "another", that is, of "a different kind".
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/jude/1-7.htm
See: https://biblehub.com/greek/2087.htm
The men of Sodom sought to "know" the men, that is, the two angels who originally accompanied the Angel of the LORD when God came down to speak with Abraham and Sarah about conceiving Isaac (See Genesis 18).
This is a clear sexual reference. The men of Sodom desired sexual relations with a "different kind" of flesh. That is, they somehow knew these "men" were embodied angels (or at least, more than just normal humans like they were) and, apparently, wanted whatever benefits or boons they believed their miscegenated relations with them would grant them. |
Where does the Bible distinguish angels from another, non-human, class of beings called "sons of God"?
Re: the men of Sodom - there is no reason whatsoever to believe they knew the visitors were angelic beings. Sodomy is not miscegenation. Miscegenation is prohibited sexual relations between two distinct ethnic groups resulting in mixed-ethnic offspring. Gay "relations" are a separate issue because they are not reproduction which requires two complementary GENDERS.
The idea of heavenly beings lusting after human women and cohabiting with them is a common trope in pagan mythologies. And in Jewish mythologies. I think you are interpreting the Bible through the lens of mythology, rather than the other way around. Myths and legends are not the clear light by which we are to understand dark and obscure Biblical narratives. That approach is irrational for a Christian.
In Scripture, "sons of God" refer to humans - in fact, a specific class of humans, those in Covenant with Jehovah God. There is NO PASSAGE in which sons of God are CLEARLY non human. It is eisegesis to read "non human" into the Genesis account. Eisegesis imported from pagan mythology. Nobody would read
Gen 6 and conclude the sons of God are divine or semidivine nonhuman entities UNLESS they had a preconceived idea that THAT is what is going on.
So where does the idea originate from? Clearly not the Bible. Ergo...? The idea is pagan mythology.
Notes: I am sure someone will bring up Job. But before they do, let's consider the fact that Job is Wisdom literature and NOT historical narrative, that nowhere does the Book of Job identify who or what the sons of God are, and therefore the Book of Job cannot be used as a proof one way or the other.
Also, I am sure someone will mention a certain Psalm. Which I would love to discuss if/when it comes up.
