[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Steven Avery

If I read those two phrases without presuppositions, I would see Christ as God blessed for ever as a far more natural reading.

The presups are the gotchas.

Edit: unless I am misunderstanding what you mean when you say "Christ as God blessed for ever". Do you mean "Christ as God (who is) blessed for ever"? Or do you mean "Christ is blessed by God for ever"? My original response below presupposes you mean the latter.

The problem is "God blessed" as used there in your statement is unnatural. Here's what I mean:

It transforms "God" into an adverb. It is essentially saying Christ is "Godblessed". I have not found any older commentaries or exegetes who even recognise such a phraseology as possible. I think the idea that the term can mean "Godblessed" is a modern invention due largely to ignorance about English history.

In the mid-late 1800s a term came into English usage, the infamous "G.d." came into usage. It was originally simply a declaration that something was condemned by God, but quickly became a profane exclamation and indeed a singular (compound) word in itself. I think people see "God blessed" in our passage as a variation on the theme (meaning the exact opposite of the profanation, of course). But it seems such a term or phrase (used in that way) was unknown prior to modern times.

Which means the Translators did not have such a concept in mind when they translated the passage the way they did. The lack of commentaries exploring, promoting, or bothering to refute such a concept indicates the concept simply did not exist at the time. Again, everyone seems divided as the phrase meaning either Christ is God, and He is blessed forever, or that it is a doxology to God separated from Christ. Nobody that I have found asserts or recognises anyone else asserting the phrase means that Christ is "Godblessed". Except for contemporary persons here on AFF. I still haven't found any modern exegetes or commenters proposing that understanding.

Practically ALL translations prior to the 1611 (the vast majority of which are faithful TR based translations) render the passage unequivocal, as these examples show:

Of whome are the fathers, and of whome concerning the flesh, Christ came, who is God ouer all, blessed for euer, Amen. (Rom 9:5 Geneva)

Of whom are the fathers, of whom as concernyng the fleshe, Christe [came,] which is God, in all thynges to be praysed for euer. Amen. (Rom 9:5 Bishops)

whose are also the fathers, off whom (after the flesh) commeth Christ, which is God ouer all, blessed for euer, Ame.
(Rom 9:5 Coverdale)

whose also are the fathers and they of whome (as concernynge the flesshe) Christ came which is God over all thinges blessed for ever Amen.
(Rom 9:5 Tyndale)

whos ben the fadris, and of which is Crist after the fleisch, that is God aboue alle thingis, blessid in to worldis.
(Rom 9:5 Wycliffe)