Quote:
Originally Posted by Esaias
The question before us is "Did God give the law knowing man was unable to keep it?"
Several things need to be determined before the question can be answered.
1. What is meant by "law" in the question? Is it the first 5 books of the Bible? Is it all the commands of God to men in general? Is it the Sinaitic Covenant? Is it the Levitical system of clergy, temple, and offerings, and washings, etc? What is meant by "law" in the question?
|
The written Law of Moses, as first mentioned in
Romans 2.
Quote:
2. What kind of inability are we talking about? Physical inability? By which I mean a natural inability, an inability arising from something lacking in the very essence or nature of mankind.
|
Sin in our flesh disables us from keeping Law perfectly.
Rom 7:17-18. Paul described this earlier in 7:8-11. He identifies where sin dwells in 17-18. What he said in verses 8-11 are what I refer to as someone being disabled from keeping law.
Quote:
|
Or is the inability a moral inability? By which is meant an inability arising from a choice, an inability that is rooted in the free will of the individual. To illustrate: you cannot flap your arms and fly around, that is a natural inability. You cannot sell your child for 1000 dollars, that is a moral inability. You technically could if you wanted to, but you choose not to, therefore you "can't" do it. Which kind of inability are we talking about?
|
Definitely not the latter you described just now above.
Quote:
3. What does it mean to be righteous? What does it mean to say that God is righteous?
|
To be righteous is to be in good standing with God. God being righteousness means that He is just and good and is only everything that is right.
Hope that helps.