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Originally Posted by Pliny
This is a lie. Barnes never cited women as wearing pants. That is PURE eisegesis (reading into something that is not there). Barnes mentions a garment that corresponds to pantaloons was worn sometimes and cites the Levitical priesthood.
Sometimes beneath this garment, as in the case of the priests, there was another garment corresponding to pantaloons.
See the quote below:
Coat - The Jews wore two principal garments, an interior and an exterior. The interior, here called the “coat,” or the tunic, was made commonly of linen, and encircled the whole body, extending down to the knees. Sometimes beneath this garment, as in the case of the priests, there was another garment corresponding to pantaloons. The coat, or tunic, was extended to the neck. and had long or short sleeves.
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Speaking of pure eisegesis, you're committing the same offense of which you accuse Aquila.
"The Jews." There is no mention of male or female. "The Jews." You are reading into something which isn't there, when you claim Barnes is only speaking of Jewish males.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pliny
More wishful thinking... Of course, when there is no evidence to support the claim some may feel it necessary to fabricate it by misconstruing what a writer wrote.
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Rich, considering Barnes wrote "The Jews" and didn't separate his commentary by whether it was male or female.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pliny
The Bible demonstrates that godly men wore pants but godly women did not.
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False. There is no passage stating women only wore robes. You are reading into something which isn't there. You read about Priests wearing underwear and 3 Jewish guys wearing hose and thought it supports your personal opinion that only men wore bifurcated garments.