Quote:
Originally Posted by Jason Badejo
I posted last night that I made this statement based on Acts 9:17-18.
I'm really failing to see your point in this, maybe you can lay out your logic and make it a bit more plain.
Paul relates his testimony in Acts twice, plus what Luke gives the readers in chapter 9. I think we have an idea of what happened when Paul was converted. We do know Paul also had the gift of tongues, but we are not told He spoke in tongues when He converted (though I do not exclude the possibility that that happened in Acts 9:17).
However what we do know is what Paul taught about salvation is very detailed throughout the first 11 chapters of Romans, and at many points His writings contradict what you guys say is necessary to salvation (baptism with the proper words spoke, the infilling of the Spirit, initially evidenced only by speaking in tongues). Paul's writing's don't teach this soteriology. Paul is very emphatic about faith, the only Biblical character who stresses faith more than Paul is Jesus.
So the point of this post is, regardless of if you want to quibble over the details of Paul's conversion, when Paul himself, under the inspiration of the Spirit, detailed the work of God in salvation, it contradicts everything you guys assert. |
The passages you referenced do not say that he did, in fact, receive the Spirit.
Now, you stated you believe he was saved prior to being told to wash away his sins. How can a person who is saved, justified, forgiven, however you define "salvation", how could such a person still need their sins " washed away"? THAT is my point with
Acts 22:16. Your doctrine doesn't seem to account for that. Paul needed to wash away his sins, AFTER he was saved according to your doctrine.
Can you explain that?