Jeffrey |
01-05-2010 03:39 PM |
Re: Can Women Pastor ?
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You very obviously need to do some homework. Besides, does one have to quote someone else for something to be true?? Or, can we simply observe things in the Biblical record [though I have read this before]???
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It's not implicit vs. explicit in exegeting the Text. That's not even the question (and it doesn't matter if you use 100 question marks). The texts are against each other in some great wrestling match. Some things that are explicit need to be understood what they are explicitly regarding.
rdp:
Never said any of this. Go back & re-read & get back to me.
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Someone like you surely believes in implicit over explicit. How else do you explain that someone must speak in tongues to be saved
rdp:
I see, so we receive the Holy Spirit today in a different manner in which those initial recipients did in Acts 2 [not to mention Acts 10, Paul, Acts 19, etc.]? Ever heard of the "Law of First Mention"? Let me guess? "Not a hemenutical principle"...right?
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Wow. Where do I start. What is it I need to do my homework on exactly, rdp? I ask again, where did you get your training in hermeneutics? I doubt you've had any. Simply observe from the Biblical record? Yeah, pretty much you flunked hermeneutics 101. Come again.
Then you answer my other response to your implicit/explicit argument by telling me to go back and read what you said? Could you not proctor a response?
Ok, Scholar. Now apply the Law of First Mention to tongues. I am all ears. To do that (remember) you will have to understand what Law of First Mention is all about, how it can be used, etc. Secondly, do you have anything explicit to indicate one must speak in tongues? The other camp has plenty of explicit passages saying how to be saved otherwise. Just turning your own flawed argument on you.
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