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Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Or you could just put up a pole barn? The bags would still stay dry. Plus MMA mats would be folded up when not in use. |
Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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The prefab garage or carport (even without walls) would cost close to 5000 or more, and I'd still have to make walls and a floor. A soilcrete floor could work but I still have to elevate it above existing grade and provide some kind of drainage. I don't trust myself to make wooden trusses and steel trusses would cost just as much as wooden ones (I'd use less but each would cost more). I'm not sure I could just do a slant roof (lean-to style) with 2x8 rafters for a 30ft span, I mean I've seen some sketchy carports but... I thought about buying a big canopy tent off Amazon and just coating it with cement to make a sort of fabric-reinforced concrete shell. I know that has been done before with burlap, not sure if the cheap chinesium tent fabric would bond to it well enough. I also thought about making a hoop house out of 1 inch PVC and putting construction netting over it all or maybe plastic window screen and then plastering that with latex cement. 1 inch pvc 10ft sticks are $1 cheaper than 10ft rebar rods... But I still have the issue of sealing where the walls meet the floor... Now I see why engineers make the big bux. :) |
Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Everything is inspected down here in South Florida. Therefore we apply for a permit on everything from the slab to the roof. A pre fab 30x30 goes for about $15,000 installed on a slab. That’s not including the electricity connection. Yet, after you are done you got a really nice gym. Be it a tool shed or a barn it has to be able to withstand the storm. Putting something together with wire lath and mud may become a projectile during a storm. We don’t only need a good strong foundation, but also need to be fastened strongly to that foundation. A building fitly framed together. Before we build we must determine the cost on how much we are willing to spend…. What happened to the author of this thread? |
Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Just trying to find the cheapest way to make a usable space. At the moment I am rearranging my garage to make room. It's not ideal, kind of small, plus I have to find a place for all the yard tools, mowers, etc, but we run what we brung, improvise, adapt, overcome. |
Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Truth needs no more support than for God to speak it once. When the Lord told Adam he would die if he ate the fruit he said it once and it was truth. Its generally believed that doctrine needs 2 or 3 witnesses, but if the Lord says something once, that's enough to establish it as truth, including Ro2.12-16. Elsewhere in this tread you ask if I believe in salvation by good works. Saved by works? Last time I checked the heart and will are located somewhere in the mind of Man. The mind is a function in the brain, which functions by molecules and atoms. When any exercises their heart and will it thus is the function of these atoms and molecules. Therefore, for any to be saved by faith involves the heart and will resulting in the movements of these atoms and molecules. Is this salvation-by-the-good-works of the atoms and molecules? It appears so. Thus, all are saved by their good works when they exercise their will to get saved by faith. I trust that you believe that repentance is necessary for salvation and is also a good work. Paul says they do by nature the things in the law. What do you say this nature is, which they have or use that causes them to do the things of the law? It appears that you would deny the possibility that a good change can occur in their heart from a response to their conscience, and that all heart-changes can only come about by the new birth. Is this your argument? Have you forgotten the times when your Dad's strong hand brought about a good change in your behaviour without the Bible? Or the times of a calamity in the church family motivated positive changes in all church families, without the Word? It is God who places the conscience in Man for a purpose and it should be allowed that the good changes from it will effect the heart, right? So, for the sake of repeating my argument, while switching the words to the more scripturally accurate 'law', lets see what difference it would make. I had pointed out previously that Paul said twice in v14 that the Gentiles did not have the Word (Gospel) because he writes to Christians in the NT times. I'll now say that Paul points out twice that the Gentile did not have the law. If so, how then can they come to saving faith to bring about the new birth when they have no law? Where will the faith to become born again Christians come from? Does NT faith come from reading the law of the 10 Commandments which Paul says they don't have, which you say they have? Do people become born again from hearing the law of Moses or from hearing the Gospel? And you say that Paul here must refer to the law of Sinai, resulting in what you say is the works of the Spirit written in the heart, and do you now say that the law of Sinai results in the receiving of the righteousness of the Spirit, that the Sinai law brings the new birth resulting in a heart-change with the Word of God is written in the heart coming from Sinai law? Is this what you'd have us believe? If these Gentiles are born again as you say, then the law here must refer to the Word of the Gospel, for it is the Gospel and not the law which results in law being written on the heart. But these Ro2 Gentiles are without either law or Gospel. If someone has come to them with the Gospel they also certainly have the law, but Paul says they don't have the law. That effect they have in their hearts has come from following their conscience and intellect. To assume that Paul refers to these Gentiles as born again Christians, showing the work of the law of God written in the hearts by the Spirit comes from your assumption. Such assumption you've cited me of wrongly doing when I described them as unregenerate without the Word. You assume them as regenerate because they evidence changed hearts but coming about even though Paul says they're without having the law. Why do you get to make assumptions and others don't? Why do you get to read between the lines and others don't? Well, its done by you because you say the scriptures show them having this change of heart from the Spirit and you must do this assumption/reading-between-the-lines to provide the reason why they've had a change of heart because you believe it can only come from the Spirit. I invite you to expand your views of how a change of heart can come about to include ways other than the new birth alone. Whether the word law or Word is used in understanding v14, the conclusion is the same. The Gentiles are without it. And somehow these Gentiles have produced a result in their hearts which leads to a clear conscience which gains them admittance to Heaven. How are these Gentiles-without-law any different from Gentile Enoch, who lived quite some time before Sinai? Plz don't nit-pick because I call him a Gentile. That he had no law to guide his life is evidenced by Paul in Ro5.13. For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. He says there was no law. Adam and Eve had perhaps only one law - "don't eat that fruit". After they sinned, the Garden and its one law was locked up, effectively annulling this law, leaving the world without law till Sinai. What then brought the difference in Enoch? This godly man must have listened to his conscience and used his reasoning abilities to motivate him to godly living. It didn't come from law which didn't exist according to Paul. He had a testimony which granted him entrance to Heaven coming from his clear conscience, just like the Gentiles Paul refers to in Ro2. Could God justly condemn someone in the NT with a clear conscience when he didn't condemn Enoch? God's accuser would say "Foul. You can't let Enoch into Heaven on a clear conscience and exclude those Gentiles who has a clear conscience." God is just and without partiality. Perhaps it was Paul's meditations on the life of Enoch which resulted in stating the conclusions he makes in v12-16? Paul says these Gentiles are without law and they have clear consciences with a ticket to Heaven. To be seen eager to refuse entrance to any not born again, who haven't heard the Word or the full Gospel, may deny the working of the conscience placed by God. Admittedly, there will be very few who fit in this category but they will exist. Jn3/Ac2 do not contradict Ro2 but work hand-in-hand with it. Any zeal for Jn3/Ac2 should not deny what God shows in Ro2. They are both God's declared will and in effect in this day. It says this of a certain Gentile who wasn't a Christian in Ac10.2 a devout man and one who feared God with all his household, who gave alms generously to the people, and prayed to God always. What say you? Had this man died before hearing the Gospel would he have a home in Heaven or Hell? What is your judgement of him? Did he possess NT salvation? No, for the angel was sent to get him to hear the Gospel to get saved. Well then, in the ways of your thinking this righteous man was on his way to Hell. Not in my book and not in Paul's book. His conscience would testify on Judgement Day that he had lived a godly life. Did he have NT salvation before he met Peter? No, but he certainly had something from God. Plz spare me the arguments that this is a lot of hypothetical talk about Cornelius because he eventually actually got born again. Plz, just see what it is I say for what this actually portrays - Cornelius as a righteous man who needed to be born again for full NT covenant salvation. The arguments presented in this thread against what I had written appear to think that I don't believe in Jn3/Ac2. For the record I do, that this is the Gospel which must be preached and believed and received. But I also believe in Ro2 and so should everyone else. Its in the Book as much as Ac2.38. Paul says these Gentiles by nature do the things in the law, but this work is not by the Word or the Spirit. And how is it that they come about to show the work of the law in their hearts? Is it in response to the Word or the Spirit? No, the heart has been changed by the response from another source - the conscience. These Gentiles are not born again. What is written in He 8 is of course true as applied to a born again believer but what Paul speaks of here is not from that source but from what he calls nature. The context of the passage shows it to be the conscience, not the Spirit. |
Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2
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So, I guess we'll just have to leave it at that - you believe that people can be saved by works apart from faith in Christ (you have so much as said so repeatedly), and I say that without faith one cannot please God, that faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God, that ALL both Jew and Gentile are convicted by God as being under sin ("there is NONE RIGHTEOUS, NO, NOT ONE") and therefore ALL need Christ, that whoever believes in Christ will not perish but have everlasting life and whoever does NOT believe in Christ will not see life, etc. "Except a man be born again he cannot enter the kingdom of God", yet you have people entering heaven and living forever... but not born again? Can you have eternal life and not be in the kingdom of God? I honestly don't think you will get much traction with this idea. |
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